Need the help of some Freeper historian. Over at DumpsterUndergeound, an "historian" is on a tear about guns. He claims that Hitler actually liberalized gun laws in Germany, allowing Germans to buy guns after the Treaty of Versailles had disarmed Germany. He then claims that disarming the Jews was actually a kindness in that it reduced their killings because the Jews couldn't fight back. I know that DU is psychotic, but I need some historical facts about what actually happened to German gun rights after 1933.