I have run across something that seems very bizarre and want to know if a loan can be approved such as this one. A married woman, age 30, obtains a conventional fixed mortgage on a home she wants to purchase and the sales price is $230,000. Her husband is not listed on the Deed of Trust From what I was told her mother and husband's income were used as a means to obtain the home even though the married woman's name appears only in the documentation. Is this possible? Can one be approved for a loan such as this without...