A Sabbath Resurrection and Wednesday Crucifixion of Yeshua the Messiah

This article begins with concessions to the traditional Friday afternoon crucifixion and Sunday morning resurrection point of view. Why concede points to the Sunday resurrection? Because whatever you heard or studied about this before, you've most likely studied an incomplete version of the Wednesday crucifixion and Sabbath resurrection that neglects these points. These neglected points may serve as reason to reject the Sabbath resurrection. On the other hand, the Wednesday scenario was always viable in spite of these difficulties, because the Friday arguments has problems of its own. What is needed in this day and age of apostasy is a firm grounding in all of the biblical facts, and not just some particular version of a theory.

First there is no doubt that the resurrection was just before dawn in the morning hours. It was not in the middle of the afternoon on the Sabbath. Christians are correct to believe that Yeshua rose from the dead in the morning. They have not been deceived about which half of the day Messiah came out of the grave. Matthew 28:1 says, "as it began to dawn"; Mark 16:2 says, "very early"; Luke 24:1 says, "very early in the morning"; and finally, John 20:1 says, "when it was yet dark". If the Wednesday Crucifixion and Sabbath resurrection can survive this concession, incorporate it, and explain it, then it will have survived a major objection. It will be all the more worthy of consideration. On the other hand, if it proves impossible to bring it into line with a morning resurrection, then it will have to be conceded that it does not provide a clear solution to the confused chronology of Yeshua's crucifixion and resurrection.

The traditional view is also correct that the resurrection was on the third day and not the fourth. It is correct that by biblical standards, the afternoon of the Sabbath would be the fourth day from Wednesday afternoon. Sunday morning, just after sunrise, is definitely the third day from Friday. If the Wednesday view cannot overcome this error in counting, then we may have to conclude that the theory is an inconclusive alternative to the Friday view.

There are other reasons why Christians will not want to consider the Wednesday crucifixion and Sabbath resurrection. They may have learned about it from a heretical group that denies the eternity of the Son of God, Yeshua. There are many cults that quickly recognize and imitate a form of godliness, but then they reject the Son of God, even denying that he is YHWH our Adonai. Christians need to learn that Satan's expertise is in packaging up neglected truths with damnable falsehoods. Satan hopes to trick some into the lie using the neglected truth, and at the same time make other Christians, keep away from the neglected truth due to the bad reputation packaged with it. Yet it is necessary to make a search into what the truth is. For most Christians already are part of a cult or heresy. The only way to escape is to pray and study the truth your group or denomination may be neglecting. Specifically, everyone needs to pray that God will show them the truth on every matter. One need to believe they will receive an answer fitting their level of maturity.

Another reason Christians may not be able to see certain truths is that they are using Bibles that hide that truth. The Catholics make their own translations. Different Protestant denominations also make their own translations. And every other cult in the world tries to make its own translation of the Scriptures. There are so many versions of the Bible in America, that no one can blame Christians for being confused. On the other hand, the confusion is witness to the reality of the attack of Satan on the Word of God. If he cannot burn bibles, then he prints his own, and uses them to deceive Christians. Should you choose this mission, to seek the truth, you will be met with all of these alternatives. The situation is comparable to ancient times when the people who knew the truth lived 10,000 miles away from those who did. A simple web search on a biblical topic will yield more controversy than anyone with a lifetime of scholarship can unravel. No one actually has time to sift through the fog that Satan has created. And the fog is not just lies. That fog is dressed up in every form of outward religion. It looks spiritual, tastes spiritual, and is partly spiritual, but is mixed with deadly poison. Will you be able to drink the truth without swallowing the poison first? Will you endure the trek while you search? Many will try and be unable. That is what Yeshua said. Blessed is the one who tries asking God for help.

Remember, if you are content with everything you were taught by your group, then it is likely that you do not have an eye to discern neglected truth. It is probable that you are not practicing the faith as Yeshua meant it to be practiced. It is likely that somewhere in the past your fathers lied. Is that not the testimony of the Bible? One thing is very clear in the Scriptures, in both Old and New Testaments: the majority of people who THINK they have the truth actually believe lies and oppose the truth whenever it comes along. And these people make every claim to being perfectly religious and perfectly spiritual about it. Only the absolute truth can set you free from all of this. The absolute truth is Messiah Yeshua crucified and raised from the dead. Therefore, we need to understand the facts of his death and resurrection, and the important conclusions we can draw from those facts.

In the Messiah's death and resurrection, two important biblical themes come together. These are the Law and the Gospel. Everything about Yeshua's death and resurrection was according to the Torah and Prophets. Both the laws and the teachings of forgiveness for sin are exalted in the historical events of Messiah's life on earth. This article will show how Yeshua exalts both the Torah and the Good News. He died to make payment for our sins, to satisfy God's just decree of punishment for sin. He rose again to give us life, and this life is expressed in His law which he is wants to write on our hearts. Whoever desires forgiveness of sin and this eternal life of living the way God desires will be saved. One begins by asking Yeshua to forgive their sins. Doing this, you will be forgiven, and will be given God's Holy Spirit so that you will live and learn to love Yeshua by keeping his commandments.

Why then do we believe that Messiah rose from the dead on the Sabbath day? For two reasons. First, the Sabbath best illustrates rest and redemption from sin, and peace in the life to come. Second, because the facts necessary to make this point are actually true. Messiah did rise from the dead on the Sabbath day. I mean the seventh day Sabbath, which is called "Saturday" in English or "El Sabado" in Spanish. This is the same Sabbath that Jewish People and many Christians worship God on. In order to understand this, we will need to take a fresh look at the original Greek manuscripts and some accurate translations. But we will not get too detailed here. This article is actually a popular summary of a 255 page book called, The Scroll of Biblical Chronology and Prophecy, which is available free online. This book demonstrates how the Sabbath resurrection leads to the complete solution for all biblical chronology problems, and how it provides a firm foundation for understanding future events, however, it is technical and not very devotional. The current article you are reading is intended to be as non-technical as I can make it, and it is intended to be devotional. That means, I will frequently explain the spiritual meaning of things and what it means to you.

All the finer details are proved in the chronology book. Putting the resurrection on the Sabbath is related to possible years for the crucifixion, which in turn is related to the solution of Daniel 9, which in turn is related to when the sabbatical years are, which in turn is related to when the Jubilee year is, which in turn are related to the overall framework of biblical chronology. If you are willing to digest all this information, then you will be just as confident as I am about the truth of the Scripture, and exactly how and when God did things in history. Taking the whole counsel of God and putting it together into a consistent whole is the real proof of the divine inspiration of Scripture and why we should listen to its teaching.

Matthew 28:1 teaches a Sabbath resurrection: "On the later of the Sabbaths, at the dawning for the first of the Sabbaths, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the tomb." It begins, "On the later Sabbath ..." because there were two Sabbaths in Passion Week. One Sabbath was the annual Passover feast day, and the other was the weekly seventh day Sabbath which followed. In Passion Week, the annual Sabbath was on Thursday. "On the later of the Sabbaths" tells us that the resurrection was on the weekly Sabbath, and not on the annual Sabbath. Jewish believers in Yeshua know that the annual Passover feast day is a rest day as well as the weekly Sabbath.

Why does the above translation of Matthew 28:1 differ from what Christians are used to? Actually, what Christianity does not realize is that with respect to translations, it is like the proverbial frog being slowly boiled to death in a pan of water. Errors have crept into the translation because either ancient translators did not understand the text or they had an unspiritual distaste for things that reminded them of Jewish laws, like the Sabbath. Here is a list of resources that admit that the original Greek meant "Sabbath".

It was only at the time of the reformation that the translators decided they could change the text from "Sabbath". Now they translate "week". But the original Matthew said, "On the later of the Sabbaths, at the dawning for the first of the Sabbaths, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the tomb." The book of Leviticus shows us what the end of Matthew's verse means. Matthew wrote, "at the dawning for the first of the Sabbaths". If we use specifically the King James Version, we will get an accurate explanation of the original Hebrew, "And ye shall count unto you from the morrow after the sabbath, from the day that ye brought the sheaf of the wave offering; seven sabbaths shall be complete:" (Lev. 23:15). This text gives commandment to Israel to begin counting something after the annual Passover Sabbath. It says they should count "seven sabbaths". "At dawn for the first of the Sabbaths" will be the first one of these Sabbaths. It will be exactly the first Sabbath after the annual Passover feast.

So the resurrection was prior to the dawning on the weekly Sabbath after Passover. Why has Christianity not seen this? Do you really expect a majority to be correct? Yeshua came to an adulterous and unbelieving generation of Jews. Do you really think Christianity has improved on the righteousness of the Jews? While Christianity has spread over the whole world, it has also been degenerating at the same time. With each new wave of spreading, its original potency and truth has been diluted bit by bit. Did not God's law warn us: "Thou shalt not follow a multitude to do evil;" (Exodus 23:2). The Jewish People rejected the most important teaching of the Torah and Prophets. The most important teaching that would tell them that Yeshua is the Messiah, the Son of God, the embodiment of the Most High in human form. Why then should you expect the Gentile Christians to do any better? The first generation began well, but the story of biblical history is a lesson in the speed and quickness of apostasy! Did not Messiah himself predict that at the end of the age, the love of most would grow cold, and the many would fall away from the truth?

As always, apostasy overturns the most important doctrines and teachings of the Scripture. Those who want to be lawless overturn and remove everything that reminds them of God's Law. That includes the Sabbath. They remove just enough to become disobedient to God, and then Satan leaves them alone. He wants them to retain the more minor truths, because Satan wants to keep their children from seeking the truth elsewhere.

Messiah Yeshua died on a Wednesday afternoon, and rose from the dead just before dawn on the Sabbath day. Now, we agreed that Messiah did rise on the third day. The time immediately before dawn on the weekly Sabbath of that week falls just within the limit of three days. In this case a day is a 24 hour period. But when does it begin and end? Yeshua's death on the cross was a sacrifice for our sin. The scripture also calls his sacrifice a "peace" offering, because it makes "peace" or Shalom between God and man. Here is the Torah's regulation for a peace offering, "And the flesh of the sacrifice of his peace offerings for thanksgiving shall be eaten the same day that it is offered; he shall not leave any of it until the morning" (Lev. 7:15). Notice that the offering must be eaten "the same day that it is offered"? Yet, the limit of that day is defined as "until the morning". The Rabbis, who liked to put fences around the law, changed the limit to midnight. However, the Torah teaches that the offering could be eaten as long as it was night, as long as dawn did not lighten the countryside. By this definition of "day" for a "peace offering", the day lasted from morning to morning. And the peace offering is a type of Messiah. Therefore, we should not be surprised if the three days are counted according to a Temple day for a sacrificial offering.

So let us calculate the three days according to the peace offering. The death of Messiah falls on the first day of the count, between dawn on Wednesday and dawn on Thursday. Both the Passover lamb and the peace offerings offered at the same hour Yeshua died would have to be eaten by the end of that "same day" which is defined as "until the morning". In the case of a sacrifice on Wednesday afternoon, the day ends at dawn on Thursday. That is the first day. Some offerings could be eaten on the second day (cf. Lev. 19:6). The second day was dawn on Thursday to dawn on Friday. But no offering could be eaten on the third day. The third day was dawn on Friday to dawn on the Sabbath. Yeshua was raised before dawn on the Sabbath. It was still the third day until the dawn lightened the countryside. Yet Yeshua's offering was kosher on the third day, so that we may partake of his resurrection. Yeshua's offering is an exception, as pointed out in the Psalms, "Nor will You allow Your Holy One to see decay" (Psalm 16:10).
Yeshua preceded the light in his resurrection because he is the greater light. The worldly light was not allowed to precede him. We must notice a few details about the resurrection. John 20:1 shows that it must have happened "when it was yet dark". Further, it was still too dark later because Mary saw Yeshua "standing, and knew not that it was Yeshua" (John 20:14). We have the sure word of prophecy to confirm that Yeshua came out of the grave while the deepest dawn was only hinting in the eastern sky. Everywhere else, it was still dark, and therefore still night. For God called the darkness "night". The prophet Hosea says, "Then we shall know, we shall pursue to know YHWH. At deep dawn His going forth is fixed, and He comes as the rain to us, as the later rain showing the earth" (Hosea 6:3). The word here used for "deep dawn" is a specific Hebrew word shakhar that always means the deepest dawn. It means the first hint of red in the east before the night is banished from the countryside. It is of the same root as the Hebrew word for the color "black". Everywhere it is black, except with the hint of light coming in the east.

The prophet says "at deep dawn His going forth is fixed" and determines the exact time that Yeshua, who is YHWH in human form, came out of the tomb. If we recognize this, then we shall recognize the LORD. The whole passage from Hosea 6:1-3 contains details of Yeshua's death and resurrection. Even the end of chapter five speaks of it. There are more details in the online book and in articles on this website. But we must not get lost in all the details. What I want you to take from this is that Yeshua was raised while it was still night. Yeshua was raised while it was still night, before the limit of the next day arrived in accord with the timing for a Temple sacrifice, which could not be eaten when it became morning. The Wednesday crucifixion and Sabbath Resurrection is in complete agreement with the fact that Yeshua rose "on the third day".

On the other hand, we will see from the notes of time in our gospels and the prophetic passage in Hosea 6:3 that the traditional Friday to Sunday explanation now lacks the third day! That's right. One may try to count Friday as day one, and Sabbath as day two, but the third day is missing, because no part of the daytime of Sunday may be included. The temple definition of day, as being from morning to morning will not help here. The third day would only begin with the light on Sunday, but we have seen that Yeshua preceded the light.

Also, the Jewish legal definition of a holy day will not help this view either. The day definition for a holy day is sunset to sunset. Before Friday sunset, we have one day, and then up to Saturday sunset, two days, and from Saturday sunset to Sunday sunset, three days. This is "on the third day", but Yeshua DID NOT say he was raised on the third day according to the standard for a holy day. No he did not. We can easily show that using the standard of the holy day, he said he would rise "after three days" (Mark 8:31, 9:31). There are many other texts that say this by the way, but you will have to get technical. See them in the online book. For our purposes here, "after three days" in Mark 8:31 and 9:31 will be sufficient. After one day begins at sunset on Friday. After two days begins at sunset on Saturday, BUT after three days does NOT begin until after sunset on Sunday. Therefore, the Jewish standard for a 24 hour day does not work with Yeshua's resurrection.

On the other hand, "after three days" works just fine with the usual Jewish definition of a 24 hour day. After one day begins at Wednesday sunset. After two days begins at Thursday sunset, and after three days begins at Friday sunset, and it remains the time period of "after three days" all the way up to sunset on the Sabbath. So "after three days" contradicts the traditional chronology. There are actually some biblical Greek manuscripts that have "after three days" in other passages. Also, many of the "on the third day" passages, when they are reverted to literal Greek and then to Hebrew should be "after three days". Here is a list partial list of the discussion in the online book:

Mark 16:1 tells us that the women "bought spices" after the Sabbath. That is, they bought spices after the annual Sabbath. They also rested on this Sabbath according to the commandment (Luke 23:56). For the Torah commanded Israel to rest on the Passover Sabbath. See Lev. 23:7. Mark 16:2 says again that the women went to the tomb "very early in the morning on the first of the Sabbaths". This was the first weekly sabbath after the annual Passover, called the "first Sabbath" because Israel was supposed to count seven Sabbaths after the Passover. Notice that Mark has mentioned both Sabbaths in Passover week? He first mentions the annual Sabbath, which fell on Thursday, and then he notes the buying of spices between the two Sabbaths, and then he moves forward to the weekly Sabbath, called the "first of the Sabbaths" following Lev. 23:15. This was the second Sabbath in that Week. On it the women went to the tomb. On it Yeshua was raised.

The reconciling of all the biblical texts in the gospels regarding the timing of Yeshua's death and resurrection should give us absolute assurance that he came out of the grave. It should also teach us that Messiah meant EXACTLY what he said. Matthew 12:40 introduced most people to the Wednesday Crucifixion and Sabbath resurrection. We have now seen that many other texts demonstrate the Sabbath Resurrection. The "three days and three nights" of Matthew 12:40 work perfectly. The nights are Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday night. The days are Wednesday day, Thursday day, and Friday day. Yeshua died in the midst of the first day, and was raised toward the end of the third night. Yet, for the Sabbath resurrection, we must agree with the traditionalists on every example of inclusive counting they give. Only part of Wednesday is counted as the first day, and only most of Friday night is counted as the third night.

We can safely state that Yeshua rose on the third day at dawn on the Sabbath. Everything fits. Even the statement in Luke 24:21 where Cleopas, a disciple says, "today is the third day since these things happened" fits. To say the "third day since" means the same thing as the third day "after". At sunset on Wednesday up to sunset on Thursday, it was one day "since" the crucifixion. Between sunset Thursday and sunset Friday, it was two days "since" the crucifixion. And finally, between sunset Friday and sunset ending the Sabbath, it was the "third day since" the crucifixion. Luke 24:21 makes sense in exactly the same way as "after three days" in Mark 8:31. So the two men walked with Yeshua to Emmaus later on the Sabbath. Now Luke 24:21 is a problem for the Friday to Sunday belief. In that case the "first day since" the crucifixion is the period after sunset on Friday. The "second day since" the crucifixion is the period between sunset ending the Sabbath and sunset on Sunday, and the "third day since" would have to be time after sunset on Sunday. So we see that Luke 24:21 does not actually work with the Friday to Sunday scenario. The objection in Luke 24:21 would only be fit to be spoken Monday morning.

With the crucifixion firmly fixed on Wednesday afternoon, the "preparation of the Passover" (John 19:14) preceding the annual "Sabbath" "high day" (John 19:31), we can see that the 14th of Nisan was Wednesday, and the 15th of Nisan was Thursday. The month of Nisan was the first month, and this began with the sighting of the new moon in Jerusalem. Since the sun, moon, and earth move through the heavens according to regular laws that can be computed, we can use a computer program to find out in which years the Passover preparation would have fallen on a Wednesday. Here is a list of the choices:

We see that only A.D. 34 fits with the astronomically calculated date for the 14th of Nisan preparation of the Passover to fall on Wednesday. Quite independently, Sir Isaac Newton reached the conclusion that the Passion was in A.D. 34, and the famous Jewish Scholar Solomon Zeitlin also reached the same conclusion.

On page 96 of the online book, the Sabbath Resurrection is scored against 46 criteria alone with theories for every other year by Hoehner-33, Anderson-32, Amadon-31, Hoeh-31, Scroggie:-30, Catholic-30, Jones-30, and Edersheim-30. It scores a perfect 46. I subtract one point for an inconsistent answer, and add one for a consistent answer. I even score Loraine Day's chronology, and even though she omits the third day criteria, her theory scores higher than all the others. The scores are Gregg: 46, Day: -4. Hoeh: -8; Scroggie -19: Jones: -20, Hoehner: -30, Catholic: -32; Anderson: -33; Amadon: -35; Edersheim: -40. None of the Friday views scored better than -30 points. Most of the criteria pertain to other historical data, not directly related to the Passion. Nolen Jones' Thursday scenario only eked out -20 points. The median scores belong to Wednesday-Sabbath afternoon scenarios (-8 and - 19).

With the Sabbath Resurrection firmly pegged to A.D. 34, we can now show how the Daniel 9:24-25 prophecy of Messiah's first coming works out perfectly and naturally with the Sabbatical Year. (The online book locates numerous historical and biblical sabbatical year.) I will will only discuss a most interesting synchronism here. About 165 A.D. Rabbi Yose Halaphta wrote a book called Seder Olam, which was incorporated into the Talmud. In this book he placed the fall of Jerusalem in A.D. 69. Although the date for the fall of Jerusalem was incorrect, Halaphta knew when the correct Sabbatical cycle was. He work places the fall of Jerusalem in the first year of the seven year sabbath cycle. That makes A.D. 67/68 the Sabbath year.

The sabbath year comes regularly every seven years. Accordingly, the very year before A.D. 34 is a sabbath year: 32/33 A.D. Also if you keep counting backward, the year 445/444 B.C. was a sabbath year on the same cycle. It was in this sabbath year, 445/444 B.C. that Nehemiah rebuilt the city of Jerusalem. The prophecy calls sabbath year cycles "week" or "sevens". However, it is little known that the Sabbath year itself is called a "seven". The text calls for seven sevens and sixty two sevens, or 69 sabbatical years. Then it says "after" this time period expires, the Messiah would be "cut off", a Hebrew idiom meaning to be put to death or banished. The number of Sabbath years from 445/444 B.C. to A.D. 32/33 is EXACTLY 69. That is right, the fit is exact. There is no need for any manipulative tricks, like resorting to the claim of a prophetic year of 360 days. The actual sabbatical cycle is all that is needed. It is the one that Israel really observed. It is the one that Israel will again learn to observe when Israel again obeys the Torah of Messiah Yeshua.

There was a 360 year before the great flood, and there only seems to be one in the book of Revelation simply because many ignorant of the biblical new moon errantly assume a month is always 30 days. For instance the 42 months are NOT 1260 days. But these matters are explained in the "Prophecy" sections of the online book.

Knowing the correct Sabbath year, we can use this information to reconstruct the year of Jubilee. The year of Jubilee comes after seven cycles of sabbatical years. The year after the 49th year is the Jubilee, which is called the 50th year (Lev. 25:1-8). When one discovers one piece of a puzzle, then other pieces start to fit too. You know you are putting a puzzle together correctly when pieces start to fit all over the place. For this reason, we can have absolute certainty about when and how Yeshua rose from the dead. We can be certain about biblical chronology. We can prove what we believe to the world. We can be assured of an absolutely solid historical foundation for the good news.

We can also be sure of one other very important thing. Did you know that every Church and denomination and sect has a view of biblical history and chronology that is necessary to support their different doctrines and teachings? They may not tell you about it, but their doctrines require certain beliefs about chronology as well. You can be sure, that if you know and thoroughly test this chronology, that you will never be deceived by these cults and alternative Christianities that compete with the original Faith that Messiah Yeshua once delivered to the Saints. And you can be sure that your knowledge of the original faith is absolutely correct.

The Jubilee year is intimately connected with the Messianic restoration at the end of the age. In the year of Jubilee, the "Great Trumpet" is blown, announcing redemption of the land of Israel. We can use our knowledge of the sabbath year to show how the Jubilee cycle fits. This little article, however is a summary of the online book, and only part of it at that. So I speak in more general terms here. The Jubilee is synchronized with the Exodus and Hezekiah's 15th and 16th years, a period of time that works out with all the other biblical data as exactly 18 Jubilees. The Jubilee is also alluded to in the 2nd year of King Saul (1 Sam. 13:1-3), the 4th year of David (2 Sam. 6:15), the fall of Nineveh (Isaiah 27:13), the restoration of Nebuchadnezzar to his throne (Dan. 4:34). The Jubilee also synchronizes with the first year of creation. This all works out perfectly with all other biblical data, with no contradictions.

Again, the kingdom of heaven is like unto a merchant man, seeking goodly pearls: Who, when he had found one pearl of great price, went and sold all that he had, and bought it.

So the servants of the householder came and said unto him, Sir, didst not thou sow good seed in thy field? from whence then hath it tares? He said unto them, An enemy hath done this. The servants said unto him, Wilt thou then that we go and gather them up? But he said, Nay; lest while ye gather up the tares, ye root up also the wheat with them. Let both grow together until the harvest: and in the time of harvest I will say to the reapers, Gather ye together first the tares, and bind them in bundles to burn them: but gather the wheat into my barn.

Are you a weed, or do you seek the pearl of great price? The pearl is knowledge of the kingdom. It is the oil that the wise virgins put in their lamps. Many will try to enter the kingdom and will be unable. Many a denomination started out down the path to truth and got sidetracked by the devil. You do not have to join with majorities and be side tracked. The shepherd himself is seeking his sheep. This is no pious talk. It is the truth. Every cult spins its tale with pious talk and a spirit of religion. This is a truth you can test and see for yourself to be fact. The Pharisees thought they had all the truth, and so they rejected Yeshua. Do not fall into the trap of depending on the authority of men or on your tradition. Seek the truth and find out the historical facts.

The online book comes with a full bibliography and over 400 footnotes. It is cross referenced and contains a complete set of chronology charts on pages 107-238. You owe it to yourself to love Messiah and seek the true and correct facts of the crucifixion and resurrection (cf. John 15:10). He is waiting to forgive everyone who puts their trust in Him. He also wants us to obey him.

Remember how I said that the gospel and the Torah are united in the events of Yeshua's death and resurrection? I have not even told half the story yet. The gospel did not bring with it a replacement righteousness to replace God's desired response: our obedience. In the good news, we learn that Yeshua (also called Jesus) paid the price for our sin. He took the penalty and paid it. The divine justice was satisfied. But the good news is not against God's laws. Many Christians might think it is because they have been taught to think about "Justified by faith" the wrong way. "Justified by Faith" they are taught means that God considers them perfectly righteous simply because they believe. That, O reader, is not the truth. A person is only righteous when they ARE righteous. We approach the crucifixion with empty hands, admitting we are sinners. We are forgiven, and pardoned of our sins. We are not acquitted. God does not send us out of his court telling us that we never did anything wrong and that he thinks we never did anything wrong. That's why we receive a pardon, and not an acquittal. If you understand this distinction, then you will understand why Paul really taught that God's "justice was satisfied by the faithfulness of Messiah" and not "justified by faith" in the way that Calvin and Luther misunderstood it. There are other materials at www.torahtimes.org about this.

The original meaning of "justified by faith" is "justice is done by the faithfulness of Messiah" (Gal. 2:16). The faithfulness of Messiah is his obedience to the cross. And it is HIS faithfulness. It is NOT our faith that "does the justice". Our faith does not get counted as perfect righteousness. That is a false anti-Torah gospel. No one becomes perfect until Yeshua transforms them, and that is not finished until He returns. I know this is a hard teaching for many, but it is true, and I would be neglecting my duty to leave it out. If you want to be righteous, or be considered righteous, then you have to obey God. I'm sure many will be turned off by this, and will go away, but that is what they did to Yeshua too! If you want to live, then you have to partake of Yeshua's life of righteousness. You cannot get it from Calvin or Luther's doctrine. Yet, if you have even a little patience, all the important points about the original language are already on the website, and I have already shown you that the Church has made their own translation of the Scriptures, according to the perversions of their hearts. If you value you life, you will seek the truth. We even have a forum. There is no theological test for participating. I only ask that people who want to argue make their arguments no longer than our replies. The truth always wins on a level playing field. The time is short.

Here is the patience of the saints: here are they that keep the commandments of God, and the faith of Yeshua.

I have a friend that I have been discussing this with and I wrote a few things to him about our discussion. He is a knowledgeable, Torah observant, Lutheran minister (not too many of them around). He is very knowledgeable about his Greek language and so I trust what he has to say on this subject regarding the word "sabbatwn" verses "sabbaton". Here is what he had to say:

Yes there is a word in Greek for week, but even though these scriptures are written in Greek the speakers spoke Hebrew. So this is the Greek translation of the Hebrew phrases and words used by the speakers. If the Jews marked the weeks according to the sabbath and it relations to it - it would make only perfect sense that they would use the word "Sabbath" in Greek if that is the word that they would have used in their Hebrew phraseology.

The word used in the resurrection passages in all the gospel's is the word "sabbatwn" which is translated as a plural form of Sabbath, not "sabbaton" (according to the Greek NT).

This is an excellent example of the lack of Greek knowledge that is being used here. The small "w" in Greek is the letter "Omega" in the small and not capital form (it makes an "o" sound). So the word should actually be transliterated "sabbaton". Sabbaton is the proper transliteration of sabbatwn. But, why confused ourselves with the facts? Sabbaton is neutral (in Greek), it can be either singular or plural, it has no position one way or the other. Again, we have to look at context of history, tradition, and actual use of language (and proper Greek) to truly get this meaning. The earliest believers understood Yeshua rose on the first day of the week we may want to also consider those traditions. But, again why confuse ourselves with facts.

If they were going to say first day of the week then why not just say it.

Let me ask you this. If the phrase "first day of the week" was not a part of your vocabulary what do you do? What if the way you render the days is by the first day of the sabbath, second day of the sabbath? Should we change our habits and traditions simply to make our generation feel better? My contention (and most biblical and Greek, and Rabbinic Scholars) is that the early believers rendered the days in relation to the Sabbath. If you can prove otherwise I would be happy to see it.

I misspoke above...

Sabbatwn is the transliteration of the Greek letters...sabbaton is the phonetic pronunciation of the Greek word. But they are the exact same word.

With love.

-Jay

* Hello Jay, You said in Post #61;

“Again, we have to look at context of history, tradition, and actual use of language (and proper Greek) to truly get this meaning......What if the way you render the days is by the first day of the sabbath, second day of the Sabbath...

My contention (and most biblical and Greek, and Rabbinic Scholars) is that the early believers rendered the days in relation to the Sabbath. If you can prove otherwise I would be happy to see it.”

* This may not be the answer you are hoping for but it may be something different for you to consider;

The phrase ‘the first (ordinal) day of the week’ could have appeared as; ‘της πρώτο ημέρα του εβδομάδα’ in the original Koine Greek verses of; Matthew 28:1, Mark 16:2, Luke 24:1, St. John 20:1,19; Acts 20:7, and 1 Corinthians 16:2 in the New Testament but does not appear anywhere in any way, shape or form.

The word ‘εβδομάδας’ in the Koine Greek for ‘week’ does appear in certain contexts of the Septuagint Old Testament (~ 270 B.C.) in; EX 34:22; LEV 23:15, 16, 25; NUM 28:26; DEUT 16:9, 10, 16; II CHRON 8:13, and DAN 9:24,25, 26, 27; 10:2, 3.

The phrase ‘the first (ordinal) of the sabbaths’ could have appeared as ‘της πρῶτον τῶν σαββάτων’in the original Koine Greek for the resurrection verses but does not for the most part.Only the verse of Mark 16:9 in the original Greek shows ‘πρώτη σάββατου’ transliterated as ‘protos sabbatou’ which is translated literally to mean ‘first (ordinal) sabbath (singular)’. Here in the long ending of Mark 16:9 – 20 regarded as an extension from a later time that does not exist in the earlier and older manuscripts.

** Here we have A.E. Knoch’s Concordant Version (1927) of the Gospel resurrection & meeting day verses; [Quotes Begin]

MTH 28:1 Now it is the evening of the sabbaths. At the lighting up into one of the sabbaths came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to behold the sepulcher.

MRK 16:2 And, very early in the morning on one of the sabbaths, they are coming to the tomb at the rising of the sun.

LUK 24:1 Now in the early depths of one of the sabbaths, they, and certain others together with them, came to the tomb, bringing the spices which they make ready.

JHN 20:1 Now, on one of the sabbaths, Miriam Magdalene is coming to the tomb in the morning, there being still darkness, and is observing the stone taken away from the door of the tomb.

JHN 20:18 It being, then, the evening of that day, one of the sabbaths, and the doors having been locked where the disciples were gathered together, because of fear of the Jews, Jesus came and stood in the midst and is saying to them, “Peace to you!”

Acts 20:7 Now on one of the sabbaths, at our having gathered to break bread, Paul argued with them, being about to be off on the morrow. Besides, he prolonged the word unto midnight.

1 COR 16:2 On one of the sabbaths let each of you lay aside by himself in store that in which he should be prospered, that no collections may be occurring then, whenever I may come.

*Here are some quotes from A.E. Knoch’s Concordant Commentary (1968);

MTH28:1 “One of the sabbaths” is the only correct translation of the phrase usually rendered “the first day of the week”. The word first is not there. It is simply one, and is applied to the eleventh hour (Mt.20:12), which, in that case, was last, not first. The word day is not in the text at all. The word “week” is in the plural, and is precisely the same as the form in the preceding sentence. If it is rendered “sabbaths” there it must also be “sabbaths” here. So there is no recourse but to translate “one of the sabbaths.”

“The key to this expression lies in the law of the Firstfruits (Lev.23:9-14). Ending with the day before Pentecost there were seven sabbaths (Lev.23:15) from the day before the waving of the “sheaf”. These are referred to in the phrase “one of the sabbaths”. Every mention of this phrase places it between the Passover and Pentecost, (1Co.16:2 and Acts 20:1 and 6). And the other occurrences refer to our Lord’s resurrection (Mk.16:2; Lu.24:1; Jn.20:1-19). He was raised on a sabbath, not the first day of the week, which would be our Sunday.”

”His resurrection on the Sabbath is a token that His work was complete. Redemption is now a matter of entering into His stopping, not the beginning of a new week of toil and labor.” [Quotes End]

** Here the Koine Greek word ‘μιᾷ’ means ‘one’ and is cardinal in meaning.

In the resurrection verses we commonly find the Koine Greek phrase; ‘μιᾷ τῶν σαββάτων’ which is transliterated ‘mia twn Sabbatwn’ and is translated to literally mean; ‘one (cardinal)of the Sabbaths’. As well, other close words can be found similarly within N.T. verses such as; Acts 20:7 : 1 Corinthians 16:2 and Colossians 2:16.

** The Biblical resurrection verses for those that display (mia twn Sabbatwn = one of Sabbaths) is shown as a partitive genitive case function where one Sabbath is taken in association to a larger group of similar Sabbaths.

Outside the resurrection verses the Koine Greek word ‘μιᾷ’ transliterated as ‘mia’ is found in other N.T. references such as; Mark 14:66 (one of the maids), and Luke 5:17; 17:22; 20:1. (one of the days) and Acts 21:7 (one day). You may check various Bible translations to confirm this.

Some folk will refer to earlier Hebrew sources as an attempt to thwart that Greek sources are inadequate or insufficient to the original intended meaning. Literary and linguist Experts claim there are often rare situations where ambiguity is prevalent in contexts hinging on more then one possible meaning. For an alternative description explaining 'a Sabbath resurrection from a Wednesday crucifixion of our Lord Jesus' please feel free to visit;

www.pmary65.wordpress.com

Best Regards – Pmary65

Has that “Torah observant Lutheran minister” given up the celebration of Christmas yet?

LOL........that's not fair, Renah. Torah Observant Lutheran Minister? Somehow....don't these terms get in the way of each other?

Answer this for me: [Matthew 28:1] And on the eve of the “sabbaths”, at the dawn, toward the first of the “sabbaths”, came Mary the Magdalene, and the other Mary, to see the sepulchre. [Mark 16:2] and early in the morning of the first of the “sabbaths”, they come unto the sepulchre, at the rising of the sun. [Luke 4:16] And he came to Nazareth, where he hath been brought up, and he went in, according to his custom, on the “sabbath”-day, to the synagogue, and stood up to read; [Luke 24:1] And on the first of the “sabbaths”, at early dawn, they came to the tomb, bearing the spices they made ready, and certain others with them. [John 20:1] And on the first of the “sabbaths”, Mary the Magdalene doth come early (there being yet darkness) to the tomb, and she seeth the stone having been taken away out of the tomb. [John 20:19] It being, therefore, evening, on that day, the first of the “sabbaths”, and the doors having been shut where the disciples were assembled, through fear of the Jews, Jesus came and stood in the midst, and saith to them, ‘Peace to you; [Acts 13:14] and they having gone through from Perga, came to Antioch of Pisidia, and having gone into the synagogue on the “sabbath-day”, they sat down. [Acts 16:13] on the “sabbath”-day also we went forth outside of the city, by a river, where there used to be prayer, and having sat down, we were speaking to the women who came together. [Acts 20:7] And on the first of the week (”sabbath”), the disciples having been gathered together to break bread, Paul was discoursing to them, about to depart on the morrow, he was also continuing the discourse till midnight. [I Corinthians 16:2] on every first day of the week (”sabbath”), let each one of you lay by him, treasuring up whatever he may have prospered, that when I may come then collections may not be made; [Colossians 2:16] Let no one, then, judge you in eating or in drinking, or in respect of a feast, or of a new moon, or of “sabbaths”

These passages are from "Young's Literal Translation" and the question is: "Why did Mr. Young translate the word SABBATWN as SABBATHS"....and more importantly....precede it by the words "First of the"? And secondly.....why do the resurrection texts all use the Greek word SABBATWN.....and not SABBATON?

Here are the Greek passages for SABBATON:

Matt 12:5, Mark 2:27, Mark 2:27, Luke 23:54, Luke 23:56, John 5:9, John 5:10, John 5:18, John 9:14, John 9:16, Acts 13:27, Acts 13:42, Acts 15:21, Acts 18:4 What is the difference? Some folks say there is no difference. If so......why doesn't the Greek says the same word throughout?

All of these passages say SABBATOU: Matt 12:8, Mark 2:28, Mark 6:2, Mark 16:1, Mark 16:9, Luke 6:5, Luke 13:14, Luke 13:16, Luke 14:5, Luke 18:12, John 19:31, Acts 1:12 Any ideas?

How about these: Matt 12:2, Matt 24:20, Luke 6:1, Luke 6:6, Luke 6:7, Luke 13:14, Luke 13:15, Luke 14:1, Luke 14:3, John 5:16, John 7:22, John 7:23, John 7:23, John 19:31, Acts 13:44 They all say SABBATW. Why is that?

Diego, please spell it out to me how you see Sabbatwn as “special sabbath”

I like to quote frequently from "Young's Literal Translation" as it, for the most part.....does an adequate job. It is much more trustworthy than the King James which is rife with error.....saturated with Martin Lutherisms.

But.....even Young's is tainted with man's imperfect slant and I will give you a good example. It deals with [Acts 20:7] and [I Corinthians 16:2].

Robert Young was a Scottish Presbyterian, lay Theologian who lived in the 19th century. He, of course, had been indoctrinated at a young age to believe in the nonsense of a Sunday morning resurrection.....and this doctrine was indeed one of the cornerstones of Protestant theology during this era. It still is! Consequently, even Mr. Young, in his excellent work, allows this false doctrine to influence what he wrote. He is also the author of "Young's Analytical Concordance".

The Greek: [Acts 20:7] en de th mia twn sabbatwn sunhgmenwn twn maqhtwn tou klasai arton o pauloV dielegeto autoiV mellwn exienai th epaurion pareteinen te ton logon mecri mesonuktiou

The English (Young's) And on the first of the week, the disciples having been gathered together to break bread, Paul was discoursing to them, about to depart on the morrow, he was also continuing the discourse till midnight.

The Greek: [I Corinthians 16:2] kata mian sabbatwn ekastoV umwn par eautw tiqetw qhsaurizwn o ti an euodwtai ina mh otan elqw tote logiai ginwntai

The English (Young's) on every first day of the week, let each one of you lay by him, treasuring up whatever he may have prospered, that when I may come then collections may not be made.

Now, if you would like to refer back to post #67 for the English in Young's.....I'll give you the Greek for all the resurrection verses.

[Matthew 28:1] oye de sabbatwn th epifwskoush eiV mian sabbatwn hlqen maria h magdalhnh kai h allh maria qewrhsai ton tafon

[Mark 16:2] kai lian prwi ths mias sabbatwn ercontai epi to mnhmeion anateilantoV tou hliou

[Luke 24:1] th de mia twn sabbatwn orqrou baqeos hlqon epi to mnhma ferousai a htoimasan arwmata kai tines sun autais

[John 20:1] th de mia twn sabbatwn maria h magdalhnh ercetai prwi skotiaV eti oushV eiV to mnhmeion kai blepei ton liqon hrmenon ek tou mnhmeiou

[John 20:19] oushV oun oyiaV th hmera ekeinh th mia twn sabbatwn kai twn qurwn kekleismenwn opou hsan oi maqhtai sunhgmenoi dia ton fobon twn ioudaiwn hlqen o ihsouV kai esth eiV to meson kai legei autoiV eirhnh umin

Now....you will notice that Mr. Young translates these two passages differently (Acts & Corinthians) than he does in Matthew, Mark, Luke & John. Why? They are the same exact words, aren't they? Agreed.....Acts, Luke and the two Johns are MIA TWN SABBATWN and Corinthians and Matthew are MIAS SABBATWN.....but he still says something about the "first day of the week" in Acts and Corinthians.....but calls it the "first of the Sabbaths" in the gospels.

Robert Young, in his life long tradition of Sunday keeping....a cornerstone of Scottish Presbyterianism, just could not bring himself to call what he thought were Sunday religious observances being celebrated by the Apostles..... the Sabbath. He knew that the resurrection verses could not be translated accurately any other way.....but his Sunday keeping indoctrination prevented him from translating the same identical words in Acts and Corinthians correctly, fearing it would probably disprove any idea of something special about Sunday. This must have been an agonizing ordeal for him....to remain true to his heritage....or translate correctly what was before him......written in Greek.

If he had accurately translated those passages (Acts and Corinthians) a firestorm of protest would have erupted and his publications would probably have never received the publicity they have come to be known for. So......who knows????????

I'll continue with more later on............

Something to consider: The Greek word Ebdomas (plural/Ebdomadas) is translated in the Septuagint as "WEEK" twenty two times. This book was in use in Judea during the first century because Greek was the "Lingua Franca" of the middle east at the time. If the writers of the New Testament had wished to say "First day of the week" (where they had written "MIA TWN SABBATWN")....they wouldn't have written it!

They would have written instead, the word for day (HEMERA), which they did not. They would have also used the Greek word (PROTO) which means "First"....but they didn't. The word that is claimed to mean "First" in all of the resurrection texts is (MIA) and it appears 80 times in the New Testament. Seven times the word MIA is translated as "First". This can be seen as a private interpretation as this word is always translated as "one"......except for these seven resurrection verses which the Sunday Keepers have forced upon us through their translations.

The Septuagint: [Leviticus 23:15] kai ariqmhsete umeis apo ths epaurion twn sabbatwn apo ths hmeras hs an prosenegkhte to dragma tou epiqematos epta ebdomadas oloklhrous Here we have both words (SABBATWN/EBDOMADAS) in one passage. Let's look at the translation.

The Jewish Publication Society Bible: [Leviticus 23:15] And ye shall count unto you from the morrow after the day of rest, from the day that ye brought the sheaf of the waving; seven weeks shall there be complete.

What kind of Sabbath is Leviticus referring to? A special Sabbath....the First Sabbath of Unleavened Bread. This is what John calls it: [John 19:31] The Jews, therefore, that the bodies might not remain on the cross on the sabbath, since it was the preparation, (for that sabbath day was a great one,) asked of Pilate that their legs may be broken, and they taken away. The KJV calls it a "High Day". The Greek calls it a SABBATW: oi oun ioudaioi ina mh meinh epi tou staurou ta swmata en tw sabbatw epei paraskeuh hn hn gar megalh h hmera ekeinou tou sabbatou hrwthsan ton pilaton ina kateagwsin autwn ta skelh kai arqwsin

More to follow.........

Let's look at the Hebrew for a definition of these terms that have been translated into Greek.

(7676) shabbath/shab-bawth': intensive from 'shabath' (7673); intermission, i.e (specifically) the Sabbath:--(+ every) sabbath.

(7677) shabbathown/shab-baw-thone': from 'shabbath' (7676); a sabbatism or special holiday:--rest, sabbath.-

The Hebrew for Sabbath is Shabbath and has been translated into Greek as SABBATON. The word Shabbath in the Old Testament appears as follows: Exo 16:23, Exo 16:25, Exo 16:26, Exo 16:29, Exo 20:8, Exo 20:10, Exo 20:11, Exo 31:14, Exo 31:15, Exo 31:15, Exo 31:16, Exo 31:16, Exo 35:2, Exo 35:3, Lev 16:31, Lev 23:3, Lev 23:3, Lev 23:11, Lev 23:15, Lev 23:16, Lev 23:32, Lev 23:32, Lev 24:8, Lev 25:2, Lev 25:4, Lev 25:4, Lev 25:6, Num 15:32, Num 28:9, Num 28:10, Deu 5:12, Deu 5:14, Deu 5:15, 2 Ki 4:23, 2 Ki 11:5, 2 Ki 11:7, 2 Ki 11:9, 2 Ki 11:9, 2 Ki 16:18, 1 Chr 9:32, 2 Chr 23:4, 2 Chr 23:8, 2 Chr 23:8, Neh 9:14, Neh 10:31, Neh 10:31, Neh 13:15, Neh 13:15, Neh 13:16, Neh 13:17, Neh 13:18, Neh 13:19, Neh 13:19, Neh 13:19, Neh 13:21, Neh 13:22, Psa 92:1, Isa 56:2, Isa 56:6, Isa 58:13, Isa 58:13, Isa 66:23, Jer 17:21, Jer 17:22, Jer 17:22, Jer 17:24, Jer 17:24, Jer 17:27, Jer 17:27, Eze 46:1, Eze 46:4, Eze 46:12, Amos 8:5

On the other hand the word for "Special Sabbath" is Shabbathone and can be found here: Lev 23:24, Lev 23:39 (twice)

Let's look at these two passages:

[Leviticus 23:24] Speak unto the children of Israel, saying: In the seventh month, in the first day of the month, shall be a solemn rest unto you, a memorial proclaimed with the blast of horns, a holy convocation. And the Hebrew transliterated: dabēr ’el-bənê yiśərā’ēl lē’mōr baḥōḏeš haššəḇî‘î bə’eḥāḏ laḥōḏeš yihəyeh lāḵem šabāṯwōn ziḵərwōn tərû‘â miqərā’-qōḏeš:

[Leviticus 23:39] Howbeit on the fifteenth day of the seventh month, when ye have gathered in the fruits of the land, ye shall keep the feast of HaShem seven days; on the first day shall be a solemn rest, and on the eighth day shall be a solemn rest. And the Hebrew transliterated: ’aḵə baḥămiššâ ‘āśār ywōm laḥōḏeš haššəḇî‘î bə’āsəpəḵem ’eṯ-təḇû’aṯ hā’āreṣ tāḥōgû ’eṯ-ḥaḡ-yəhwâ šiḇə‘aṯ yāmîm bayywōm hāri’šwōn šabāṯwōn ûḇayywōm haššəmînî šabāṯwōn:

Shabbathone can also be found here: Exo 16:23(One of the Sabbaths between Passover and Pentecost to be counted as later outlined in [Leviticus 23:15]), Exo 31:15(lists both), Exo 35:2(lists both), Lev 16:31(Atonement), Lev 23:3(lists both), Lev 23:32(Atonement), Lev 25:4(Sabbatical Year), Lev 25:5(Sabbatical Year) Where both Shabbath and Shabbathone are found it is referred to as a Sabbath of rest.

Shabbathone is designated a Special Sabbath according to the above passages and each time it is duplicated it is because it has been referred to as Sabbath of "Rest" also....a special Sabbath as it were.

When the writers of the New Testament authored the Gospels and the books of Acts, Corinthians and Colossians (where SABBATWN occurs) they were familiar with the Hebrew terminology of Shabbathone meaning a "set apart day"....a special Sabbath. They also knew that an ordinary seventh day Sabbath was called a Shabbath (SABBATON). When the resurrection verses were penned the author's designated these Sabbath days as SABBATWN because the resurrection occurred on the first Sabbath between Passover and Pentecost......one of the special Sabbaths that the Hebrews were to observe and count [Leviticus 23:15]. The other instance of SABBATWN in the New Testament refers to to God's annual feast days [Colossians 2:16] mh oun tiV umaV krinetw en brwsei h en posei h en merei eorthV h noumhnias h sabbatwn. And the English: Let no one, then, judge you in eating or in drinking, or in respect of a feast, or of a new moon, or of sabbaths.

To head off some possibl1e questions .......the passages that list SABBATWN in Acts and Corinthians are also speaking of "one of the Sabbaths" between Passover and Pentecost.....as well.

The major point to be made is that in every resurrection text the word used is the Hebrew "Shabbathone" carried over into it's Greek designation of SABBATWN, which by definition would mean a "Special Sabbath". The official SABBATWN are "Trumpets, Atonement, and the first and last days of Tabernacles." Over time, all important annually recognized Shabbaths that were not just weekly Sabbaths came to be known as Shabbathone....and this included the seven counted weekly Sabbaths between Passover and Penetcost and they became known by the Greek word SABBATWN.

Achi (Jay) said in post # 61;

“If the phrase "first day of the week" was not a part of your vocabulary what do you do? What if the way you render the days is by the first day of the sabbath, second day of the sabbath?”

Diego1618 said in post # 67;

“These passages are from "Young's Literal Translation" and the question is: "Why did Mr. Young translate the word SABBATWN as SABBATHS"....and more importantly....precede it by the words "First of the…"

* Robert Young shows Sabbaths (‘σαββατων’) as plural in ‘Young’s Literal Translation’ and his ‘Analytical Concordance to the Holy Bible’ for the resurrection verses where he believed and explained 2 Sabbaths (Annual Nisan 15th & weekly Saturday) coinciding on the same intermediate time between the crucifixion and resurrection of our Lord.

He believed in a Friday Nisan 14th crucifixion and a Sunday Nisan 16th (first fruits / LEV 23:11) resurrection.

His understanding of theology underlies him to say ‘First’ rationalizing Sunday as the next day after the ‘Sabbaths’ (that coincided together). The sense of understanding here is that the ‘First Day’ (Sunday) was ablative from the Sabbaths. This seems to be the common thread between the traditional Biblical interpreters of the Greek. They believe that ‘the first of Sabbaths’ and Sunday are the same identical day. Also the phrase from LEV 23:15 have a sense in the word ‘Sabbaths’ as being understood to mean ‘weeks’.

This is the real reason why Robert Young and mainstream theologians justify in their logic that the ‘first of Sabbaths’ must mean ‘the first day of the week’. This too may have been the understanding of theologians during the times at the Council of Nicaea (~325 A.D.) carried over to the Edict of Laodicea (~367 A.D.) where the instilled canon law # 29 says that Christians ‘must work on the Sabbath’. This understanding of theology allowed ‘Constantine the Great’ to force unification on Christians and Pagans alike on the same ground of ‘Sun Day’ worship. Constantine took advantage of an opportunity to solidify a solution for tolerance and harmony between the general masses of religions within his empire.

However, mainstream Christian theologians alike to Robert Young may have found difficulties in justifying logic for scriptures pertaining to the ‘Sign of Jonah’ (3 days & 3 nights) or the phrase ‘after three days’ in order to fit their ‘post crucifixion – resurrection time frame.

In their theological understanding, the ‘Sign of Jonah’ may have been written off merely as metaphorical or a shear simple shallow expression of a idiomatic phrase.

It may be only to the remaining so-called private modern day interpreters of theology where the words of Jesus ‘the only sign given’ have any deep merit to investigate literally in full analytical detail with profound implications there of. We can see that such a process runs deep through the minds of those who are convicted to lay it all out on the line. We who firmly believe reprehensively ‘in the only sign given’ as stated directly by Jesus himself. (MTH 16:4 : LUK 11:29, 30).

Best Regard – Pmary65

My views on Matthew 28:1 οψε δε σαββατων are explained here:

Daniel's Literal Translation and Commentary

The Later Sabbath After the Passover Sabbath

"Matthew 28:1 And the later of the Sabbaths, as it began to dawn on the first of the Sabbaths, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulcher" (DLT: torahtimes.org).

later...Sabbath: There were two Sabbaths in Passover week. The annual Passover Sabbath was on Thursday, Nisan 15, and this was followed by the weekly Sabbath on Nisan 17. The "later of the Sabbaths' refers to the weekly Sabbath. "Later" is used in the sense of "former" and "later". The former Sabbath was the annual Sabbath. The later Sabbath was the weekly Sabbath.

first...Sabbath: The weekly Sabbath was also called the "first of the Sabbaths" on account of Leviticus 23:15, where instructions are given to count seven Sabbaths after the annual Passover Sabbath".

later: Οψε. The proper definition of this word when used with the genitive case is later. "The genitive with Οψε and μετ ολιγον have become associated in meaning with υστερον τουτων [later of these], προτερον τουτων [former of these]" (BLASS, 164.4, pg. 91, A Grammar of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature). Thayer's Lexicon observes concerning the errant rendering "after": "but an examination of the instances just cited (and others) will show that they fail to sustain the rendering after." (DLC: torahtimes.org)
1. Mt. 28:1, Moulton, Robertson, and likely B-D-F justify the pragmatic sense "after" in Mat. 28:1 with the ablative. Moulton describes it best, "This use of οψε = after involves an ablative gen., "late from." (pg. 72, Prolegomena).

2. Robertson, pg. 646, "It is a point, for exegesis, not for grammar, to decide." The reason Roberston must say this is that it depends on the interpretation of the following gentive, and not on the lexical meaning of οψε, whose meaning is implicitly conceeded by the use of this argument NOT to be "after", and thus agrees with the main thesis of the editorial objection in Thayer's Lexicon. As for the further claim of the editor that the ablative is not in fact used in examples provided, the jury is still out until the source contexts of those examples can be rechecked.

3. Daniel B. Wallace, "For example, the genitive of separation [i.e. ablative], a common idiom in the Attic dialect, is rare in the Koine. It has been replaced, by and large, by απο + genitive" (pg. 163, Basics). Απο, of course, means "from".

4. Therefore, "Later [from]" where "from" is the interpretation is a rare interpretation in Koine, and the Koine normally inserts the word απο to mean "from" in a case like this.

5. B-D-F allows οψε in the sense of υστερον τουτων [= later of these]

6. For οψε BDAG provides an example "later than", but as we have seen the "than" is merely a dynamic equivalent gloss for the ablative "from" interpretation. Therefore, we merely need to interpret the genitive the normal way, "Later of the Sabbaths" in Mt. 28:1 to arrive at the intelligible sense that it means the second of two sabbaths, i.e. the weekly Sabbath after Passover.

7. Where Moulton and B-D-F (pg. 72) translates οψε των Τρωικων "at a late [stage] in the Trojan war" they are being less than accurate, since the Greek says "Trojan wars" in the plural. So it would be "later of the Trojan wars" or "late in the Trojan wars"; it would be impossible to distinguish "late in" here from "later of".

8. Liddell and Scott qualify the sense "after" with "perh." = "perhaps" showing they are less than certain.

9. Liddell and Scott supply an example οψιγενης = later born, "later-born, i.e. younger", with notice that the prefix form, οψι, is from οψε.

10. Moulton vol. III regarding οψε speculates, "A Latinism? Just After," (Nigel Turner) regarding Mt. 28:1.

11. Regardless of the personal opinion of any of these men, the evidence presented by them supports the sense "later of sabbaths".

12. The following concordance shows that consistent sense can be made with "later":

Gen 24:11 toward a later time, when the women fetch
Exo 30:8 And when Aaron shall light the lamps later,
Isa 5:11 who linger till later, for wine will inflame them
Jer 2:23 And know what you did later. Her voice cried
Mat 28:1 And the later of the sabbaths, at dawning for
Mar 11:19 And when later it became, he was going
Mar 13:35 cometh, either later, or at midnight, or at
Ant 16.218 he went at the later hour to refresh himself
Bdag 3.1 later of the hour decided on; from?
Bdag 3.2 he arrived later of/in/from? the mysteries;
Bdag 3.3 later of/in/from? these
Bdag 3.4 later of/in the fight
Blass 164.4a later of/in the Trojan wars
Blass 164.4b at a later hour
Blass 164.4c later of/in/from? the games
Thay 471 later of/in/from? the times of the king

13. Notice "from?" in some examples. This is because those examples actually have to be checked in the original source again to see if the ablative is required to make sense of the context.

14. Regardless of the personal opinion of these men, they show uncertainty and confusion over the pragmatic sense "after", and though a bit uncareful in their statements clearly appear to reject the lexical sense "after" leaving it to the lexical sense + ablative to yield that pragmatic sense.

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Daniel's Literal Translation and Commentary: (http://www.torahtimes.org/translation/mat2801.html)

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But what about some of the sabbatwn verses that do not seem to refer to a “special sabbath”?

Matthew - 12:2 24:20 Luke - 6:1 6:6 6:7 13:15 14:1 14:3 John - 5:16 7:22 7:23 Acts - 13:44

Well....these verses are actually rendered in the Greek as SABBATW.....not SABBATWN. But let's look at them anyway.

[Matthew 12:1-2] 1 At that time did Jesus go on the sabbaths through the corn, and his disciples were hungry, and they began to pluck ears, and to eat, 2 and the Pharisees having seen, said to him, 'Lo, thy disciples do that which it is not lawful to do on a sabbath.

The word in verse 1 is SABBASIN. The word in verse 2 is SABBATW. This passage lines up with [Luke 6:1-2] that says: 1 And it came to pass, on the second-first sabbath, as he is going through the corn fields, that his disciples were plucking the ears, and were eating, rubbing with the hands, 2 and certain of the Pharisees said to them, 'Why do ye that which is not lawful to do on the sabbaths?

Why does Luke call it "the second first Sabbath"? For your perusal

Luke makes the distinction of this Sabbath being somehow special.....just by the simple fact he calls it the "Second first Sabbath." Luke also tells us in verse 6-7 that another event occurred on another SABBATW, thereby bringing these two events together as happening on the same kind of Sabbath....a special Sabbath as it were. That event, of course .......being the healing of a withered hand in full view of the Pharisees.

Julian Morgenstern, past President of Hebrew University: Quote.........Seven Sabbaths were to be counted from the Feast of First fruits or Passover. Consequently, these became known as "First Sabbath", "Second Sabbath" etc. down to the seventh. This practice continued in Galilee til the time of Christ or the common era. It is still observed by some groups in Palestine today. Thus, there was an annual date known as "First Sabbath" just after Passover. (page 230, "The Life of Christ in Stereo")

So, we have tied in [Matthew 12:2][Luke 6:1; 6:6; 6:7; 13:14; & 13:15] as all happening on the same type of SABBATW (probably one of the Sabbaths between Passover and Pentecost) and how does the scripture identify a SABBATW? [John 19:31] oi oun ioudaioi ina mh meinh epi tou staurou ta swmata en tw sabbatw epei paraskeuh hn hn gar megalh h hmera ekeinou tou sabbatou hrwthsan ton pilaton ina kateagwsin autwn ta skelh kai arqwsin And the translation: The Jews, therefore, that the bodies might not remain on the cross on the sabbath(SABBATW), since it was the preparation, (for that sabbath day(SABBATOU) was a great one,) asked of Pilate that their legs may be broken, and they taken away.

That SABBATW was to be the first Sabbath of Unleavened Bread [Leviticus 23:6]....a special Sabbath.....like the ones counted between Passover and Pentecost [Leviticus 23:15].

[Luke 14:1-3] 1 And it came to pass, on his going into the house of a certain one of the chiefs of the Pharisees, on a sabbath(SABBATW), to eat bread, that they were watching him, 2 and lo, there was a certain dropsical man before him; 3 and Jesus answering spake to the lawyers and Pharisees, saying, 'Is it lawful on the sabbath(SABBATW) day to heal?' 4 and they were silent, and having taken hold of him, he healed him, and let him go; 5 and answering them he said, 'Of which of you shall an ass or ox fall into a pit, and he will not immediately draw it up on the sabbath(SABBATOU) day?' 6 and they were not able to answer him again unto these things. These two verses again show The Lord healing on a special Sabbath day in full view of the Pharisees. It's almost as if He is daring them to object.

[Mark 3:2] also gives an example of The Lord healing on a Sabbath: kai parethroun auton ei toiV sabbasin qerapeusei auton ina kathgorhswsin autou In this case it is the same word as we found in [Matthew 12:1] which was the same day as [Matthew 12:2].....a SABBATW, and is obviously the same event as we find in [Luke 6:6-7]....also identified as a SABBATW. And, as indicated by the story thread.....the actual event was on the "Second First Sabbath" [Luke 6:1].....evidently a special Sabbath.

On to John..........[John 5:16] and because of this were the Jews persecuting Jesus, and seeking to kill him, because these things he was doing on a sabbath(SABBATW). Let's backtrack a bit in this chapter to see the time line: Verses 1-15 1 After these things there was a feast of the Jews, and Jesus went up to Jerusalem, 2 and there is in Jerusalem by the sheep -gate a pool that is called in Hebrew Bethesda, having five porches, 3 in these were lying a great multitude of the ailing, blind, lame, withered, waiting for the moving of the water, 4 for a messenger at a set time was going down in the pool, and was troubling the water, the first then having gone in after the troubling of the water, became whole of whatever sickness he was held. 5 and there was a certain man there being in ailment thirty and eight years, 6 him Jesus having seen lying, and having known that he is already a long time, he saith to him, 'Dost thou wish to become whole?' 7 The ailing man answered him, 'Sir, I have no man, that, when the water may be troubled, he may put me into the pool, and while I am coming, another doth go down before me.' 8 Jesus saith to him, 'Rise, take up thy couch, and be walking;' 9 and immediately the man became whole, and he took up his couch, and was walking, and it was a sabbath on that day, 10 the Jews then said to him that hath been healed, 'It is a sabbath; it is not lawful to thee to take up the couch.' 11 He answered them, 'He who made me whole -- that one said to me, Take up thy couch, and be walking;' 12 they questioned him, then, 'Who is the man who is saying to thee, Take up thy couch and be walking?' 13 But he that was healed had not known who he is, for Jesus did move away, a multitude being in the place. 14 After these things, Jesus findeth him in the temple, and said to him, 'Lo, thou hast become whole; sin no more, lest something worse may happen to thee.' 15 The man went away, and told the Jews that it is Jesus who made him whole,

He was in Jerusalem for a Feast which means this SABBATW was either the Feast day itself......or perhaps one of the seven SABBATW between Passover and Pentecost. Nevertheless, the timing gives credence to the definitive Greek SABBATW.

[John 7:22-23] Again.....let's backtrack: 14 And it being now the middle of the feast, Jesus went up to the temple, and he was teaching, 15 and the Jews were wondering, saying, 'How hath this one known letters -- not having learned?' 16 Jesus answered them and said, 'My teaching is not mine, but His who sent me; 17 if any one may will to do His will, he shall know concerning the teaching, whether it is of God, or -- I do speak from myself. 18 'He who is speaking from himself his own glory doth seek, but he who is seeking the glory of him who sent him, this one is true, and unrighteousness is not in him; 19 hath not Moses given you the law? and none of you doth the law; why me do ye seek to kill?' 20 The multitude answered and said, 'Thou hast a demon, who doth seek to kill thee?' 21 Jesus answered and said to them, 'One work I did, and ye all wonder, 22 because of this, Moses hath given you the circumcision -- not that it is of Moses, but of the fathers -- and on a sabbath(SABBATW) ye circumcise a man; 23 if a man doth receive circumcision on a sabbath(SABBATW) that the law of Moses may not be broken, are ye wroth with me that I made a man all whole on a sabbath(SABBATW)? 24 judge not according to appearance, but the righteous judgment judge.

[Acts 13:44] And on the coming sabbath(SABBATW), almost all the city was gathered together to hear the word of God. We should also backtrack here: [Acts 13:13-14] anacqenteV de apo thV pafou oi peri ton paulon hlqon eiV perghn thV pamfuliaV iwannhV de apocwrhsaV ap autwn upestreyen eiV ierosoluma autoi de dielqonteV apo thV perghV paregenonto eiV antioceian ths pisidias kai eiselqontes eiV thn sunagwghn th hmera twn sabbatwn ekaqisan And the English: 13 And those about Paul having set sail from Paphos, came to Perga of Pamphylia, and John having departed from them, did turn back to Jerusalem, 14 and they having gone through from Perga, came to Antioch of Pisidia, and having gone into the synagogue on the sabbath-day, they sat down,

The Greek shows this word SABBATWN as the same word used in all the resurrection passages as well as [Acts 20:7] and [I Corinthians 16:2], both of which have been shown to be Sabbaths between Passover and Pentecost. Paul is in Antioch during a Feast and as verse 44 shows.....the next Sabbath was indicated to be a SABBATW so it was most likely one of the Sabbaths between Passover and Pentecost......a special Sabbath.

Now.....the last one of your inquiry [Matthew 24:20] and pray ye that your flight may not be in winter, nor on a sabbath(SABBATW); This one.....I cannot explain. I can only assume that it means the same as the others.

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