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To: Achi; Daniel Gregg; Diego1618

Hello Jay,

Has that “Torah observant Lutheran minister” given up the celebration of Christmas yet? Just wondering, especially since a clean break with paganism is one of the prohibitions of the Acts 15 Jerusalem Council (the minimum required for table fellowship with Jews).

If Sunday was the day of Resurrection, why would this not be the primary reason given for the switch from Sabbath to Sunday in Church history? Why were various reasons tossed out like “trial balloons” for the change to the “Venerable Day of the Sun” (as it was known), ......the primary reason being to establish Church authority in distinction from “all things Jewish.”

Even though Samuele Bacchiocchi believed in a Sunday resurrection, his research in “From Sabbath to Sunday” includes several smoking guns. Maybe he could only go so far in bucking the system and still get his book published, especially with a Vatican imprimitur on it!

Shalom,

Renah


65 posted on 11/09/2009 8:28:53 AM PST by Renah
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To: Renah; Achi; Daniel Gregg; Diego1618

Correction:

Poorly written sentence above. Sorry. Should say:

A clean break with paganism is required according to the 4 prohibitions of the Acts 15 Jerusalem Council.

Shalom,

Renah


66 posted on 11/09/2009 11:38:36 AM PST by Renah
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To: Renah
Has that “Torah observant Lutheran minister” given up the celebration of Christmas yet?

LOL........that's not fair, Renah. Torah Observant Lutheran Minister? Somehow....don't these terms get in the way of each other?

Answer this for me: [Matthew 28:1] And on the eve of the “sabbaths”, at the dawn, toward the first of the “sabbaths”, came Mary the Magdalene, and the other Mary, to see the sepulchre. [Mark 16:2] and early in the morning of the first of the “sabbaths”, they come unto the sepulchre, at the rising of the sun. [Luke 4:16] And he came to Nazareth, where he hath been brought up, and he went in, according to his custom, on the “sabbath”-day, to the synagogue, and stood up to read; [Luke 24:1] And on the first of the “sabbaths”, at early dawn, they came to the tomb, bearing the spices they made ready, and certain others with them. [John 20:1] And on the first of the “sabbaths”, Mary the Magdalene doth come early (there being yet darkness) to the tomb, and she seeth the stone having been taken away out of the tomb. [John 20:19] It being, therefore, evening, on that day, the first of the “sabbaths”, and the doors having been shut where the disciples were assembled, through fear of the Jews, Jesus came and stood in the midst, and saith to them, ‘Peace to you; [Acts 13:14] and they having gone through from Perga, came to Antioch of Pisidia, and having gone into the synagogue on the “sabbath-day”, they sat down. [Acts 16:13] on the “sabbath”-day also we went forth outside of the city, by a river, where there used to be prayer, and having sat down, we were speaking to the women who came together. [Acts 20:7] And on the first of the week (”sabbath”), the disciples having been gathered together to break bread, Paul was discoursing to them, about to depart on the morrow, he was also continuing the discourse till midnight. [I Corinthians 16:2] on every first day of the week (”sabbath”), let each one of you lay by him, treasuring up whatever he may have prospered, that when I may come then collections may not be made; [Colossians 2:16] Let no one, then, judge you in eating or in drinking, or in respect of a feast, or of a new moon, or of “sabbaths”

These passages are from "Young's Literal Translation" and the question is: "Why did Mr. Young translate the word SABBATWN as SABBATHS"....and more importantly....precede it by the words "First of the"? And secondly.....why do the resurrection texts all use the Greek word SABBATWN.....and not SABBATON?

Here are the Greek passages for SABBATON:

Matt 12:5, Mark 2:27, Mark 2:27, Luke 23:54, Luke 23:56, John 5:9, John 5:10, John 5:18, John 9:14, John 9:16, Acts 13:27, Acts 13:42, Acts 15:21, Acts 18:4 What is the difference? Some folks say there is no difference. If so......why doesn't the Greek says the same word throughout?

All of these passages say SABBATOU: Matt 12:8, Mark 2:28, Mark 6:2, Mark 16:1, Mark 16:9, Luke 6:5, Luke 13:14, Luke 13:16, Luke 14:5, Luke 18:12, John 19:31, Acts 1:12 Any ideas?

How about these: Matt 12:2, Matt 24:20, Luke 6:1, Luke 6:6, Luke 6:7, Luke 13:14, Luke 13:15, Luke 14:1, Luke 14:3, John 5:16, John 7:22, John 7:23, John 7:23, John 19:31, Acts 13:44 They all say SABBATW. Why is that?

67 posted on 11/10/2009 6:55:49 PM PST by Diego1618
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