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"The Parable of the Pebble and the Pond" God's gift to us.
04/15/2010 | J. Knight

Posted on 04/15/2010 8:23:04 AM PDT by WhatsItAllAbout



"The Parable of the Pebble and the Pond" God's gift to us.

"The Parable of the Pebble and the Pond" Answers the question when the Pebble parts the Pond what makes the waves, the Pebble or the Pond, and what does it mean to me?

In today's World "The Parable of the Pebble and the Pond" takes on an even deeper meaning.

God sees "The Parable of the Pebble and the Pond" written on every soul, so what have you wrtten?


TOPICS: Activism; Moral Issues; Religion & Science; Theology
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To: irishtenor
Sorry, I have not responded to your earlier post

"Ok, so where can I find this story?"

The short answer is you can find this story in your own Heart.
21 posted on 04/19/2010 1:04:14 PM PDT by WhatsItAllAbout
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To: WhatsItAllAbout

You are talking about a parable. I would like to read this parable.


22 posted on 04/19/2010 3:54:53 PM PDT by irishtenor (Tag line is on vacation.)
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To: irishtenor
Perhaps calling this a Parable may be a misnomer, in that it only has this defining characteristic of a parable below which is from Wikipedia,"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parable" and leaves the " subtext to the hearer.

"The defining characteristic of the parable is the presence of a prescriptive subtext suggesting how a person should behave or believe. Aside from providing guidance and suggestions for proper action in life, parables frequently use metaphorical language which allows people to more easily discuss difficult or complex ideas."
23 posted on 04/19/2010 4:22:31 PM PDT by WhatsItAllAbout
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To: WhatsItAllAbout

I still have no idea what the subject is about. You gave a title, but no substance. Please elaborate.


24 posted on 04/19/2010 4:23:54 PM PDT by irishtenor (Tag line is on vacation.)
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To: irishtenor
Basically I am trying to point out it is not what is done to you, but how you respond to it.

Broadly stated is about an action verses a reaction. The individual cannot control the actions against themselves but only their reactions to the action.

It's not all that complex, but it is true none the less.
25 posted on 04/19/2010 5:50:06 PM PDT by WhatsItAllAbout
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To: WhatsItAllAbout

When I write a story, I have a beginning, a middle and an end, with a moral or point to close it up. All I see on your post is a title, and no story behind it. The title says “The Parable of the Pebble and the Pond” but nowhere do I see a story. That is my point. I have no idea what the STORY is. Suppose I wrote a story and I call it”... And They Lived Happily Ever After.” and didn’t post anything else. You would have no idea what I was talking about.

Give me some substance, so I can either agree or disagree with your point. Or offer an alternative.


26 posted on 04/19/2010 5:59:05 PM PDT by irishtenor (Tag line is on vacation.)
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To: irishtenor
Why must you offer agreement or disagreement? The desire I have is that the substance would be created by/in the hearer, in other words to be the Pebble.

What would your alternative be to the statement that "You have no control over the things that are done to you, but only the things you do about it."?
27 posted on 04/19/2010 6:07:05 PM PDT by WhatsItAllAbout
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To: WhatsItAllAbout

Your story (such as it is) gives no clue as to what the pebble is, or the pond, or anything else.
And YES, I can disagree, if there is reason to, or I can offer an agreement to what is said... much like saying Amen after a good point in a sermon.

As to my alternative to the statement:”You have no control over the things that are done to you, but only the things you do about it.”????
You cetainly have control over where you put your time. If you hate barfights, stay out of bars.


28 posted on 04/19/2010 6:12:26 PM PDT by irishtenor (Tag line is on vacation.)
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To: irishtenor
"You certainly have control over where you put your time. If you hate barfights, stay out of bars."

My point exactly your response to barfights is to stay out of bars, but you can't stop them from breaking out.
29 posted on 04/19/2010 6:20:06 PM PDT by WhatsItAllAbout
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To: WhatsItAllAbout
Been out for a week, pardon my tardy response.

"In my experience God's Grace is available to ALL, Salvation is Universally available to All through Christ's death on the Cross and death's defeat in his Resurrection."

Nonsense.

The grace of Jesus Christ is not universal nor universally available. Read the letter to the Romans all the way through, learn some hermeneutics.

"So then it does not depend upon the man who wills (chooses) or the man who runs (acts), but upon God who has mercy...So then He has mercy on whom He desires, and He hardens whom He desires. YOU WILL SAY TO ME THEN, 'WHY DOES HE STILL FIND FAULT? FOR WHO CAN RESIST HIS WILL?" Rom. 9:16 - 19ff. Read the rest for Paul's answer.

God is rescuing whom He will, for no identifiable reason to the recipients or those left to die in their sins. The annotations of the NIV mean no more to believers than the pontifications of the RC church. Let go of the dreamy tripe and speak the truth plainly...if you can.

30 posted on 04/26/2010 12:56:17 PM PDT by Dutchboy88
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To: Dutchboy88
"The grace of Jesus Christ is not universal nor universally available. Read the letter to the Romans all the way through, learn some hermeneutics."

So if I understand your position God's call to Salvation and repentance is not made to all mankind? Granted since he is all knowing he knows who will and who won't hear and obey even before they are born. Just because a Man doesn't choose to believe doesn't means God's Grace is in any way limited

If God's Grace is not universal why does 2 Peter 3:9 Say "The Lord is not slow in keeping his promise as some understand slowness. He is patient with you not wanting anyone to perish, but everyone to come to repentance."

Which sinners is Paul speaking about when he says in 1 Timothy 1:15 "Here is a trustworthy saying that deserves FULL ACCEPTANCE: Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners - of whom I am the worst."

Is not every sinner given one last chance like the Fig tree in Luke 13:6-9

"Then he told this parable:"A man had a fig tree, planted in his vineyard, and he went to look for fruit on it, but did not find any. So he said to the man who took care of the vineyard, For three years now I've been coming to look for fruit on this fig tree and haven't found any.

Cut it down! Why should it use up the soil? Sir, the man replied, leave it alone for one more year, and I'll dig around it and fertilize it. If it bears fruit next year, fine! If not, then cut it down."

Like God seems to say to Johan who are you to put a limit on God's Grace can you somehow know who he chooses and who he doesn't? You may not see the work the Holy Spirit does, but he is working like the man in the garden, up to the very last breath that a Soul takes on this Earth.


31 posted on 04/27/2010 7:11:28 PM PDT by WhatsItAllAbout
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To: Dutchboy88
I would like your interpretation of the verses in Romans 11:25-32.

Romans 12:32 says "For God has bound all men over to disobedience so that he may have mercy on them all"

To me it seems to say God's mercy is universally available to ALL, but it can be accepted or rejected by the individual Soul.
32 posted on 05/02/2010 8:24:11 AM PDT by WhatsItAllAbout
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To: WhatsItAllAbout
"To me it seems to say God's mercy is universally available to ALL, but it can be accepted or rejected by the individual Soul."

The Scriptures indicate that there are several important doctrines in play simultaneously. That this is so should not surprise us...we are dealing with a God whose mind is beyond infinite. It is transcendent. We are trying to keep up from language given to us describing how a transcendent and sovereign God thinks and acts.

To discuss God's extension of mercy upon the world, we will need to deal with foreknowledge and predestination at the same time. So, if you are defining "mercy" as God extending the ability for a man to make a completely self-determined decision to trust God, or reject Him (again, completely unaffected by God's control over that decision), then God has to have no idea who will be saved and who will perish. If He knew, then the decision would not be taking place at the moment of "decision", but sometime prior.

If a man is really "free", then God really does not know what he will choose rendering God's foreknowledge deficient. I think we all agree that foreknowledge implies knowing beforehand (in time/space history) the outcome of a particular event. But, for "freedom" to exist, God cannot have prior knowledge of the outcome. This is what gave rise to the "Open Theology" movement, a cult of monumental proportions.

We, OTOH, maintain that the Scripture makes it abundantly clear that God knows every detail that will happen in the future. This is one more reason He can provide prophetic statements about future events with certainty. His foreknowledge is actually the understanding He possesses of the decisions He has already made and is executing after the counsel of His will.

Therefore, taken together, Rom. 11:25ff is simply saying that the day is coming when, irrespective of Israel's stubborn heart, incalcitrant behavior, firm resistance to Yahweh, He will break their hearts, change their status from "enemies" to elect and rescue perhaps an entire generation. God knows the time when the "fulness of the Gentiles" will be complete and at that moment will switch over His outpouring of "mercy" and turn to the Jews, again. He is powerful to manipulate their will, exactly as He has done to the Gentiles. cf to Acts 13:48, "And when the Gentiles heard this, they began rejoicing and glorifying the word of the Lord; and as many as had been appointed to eternal life believed." Notice, not, "as many as believed were appointed to eternal life." but, "as many as were appointed to eternal life believed."

Taken out of context of Paul's argument, it is tempting to make the "all" of Rom. 11:32 imply "every human being". But, in context he is saying, the way God metes out mercy applies to every "nationality", both Jews and Gentiles (that is the local argument). When He wishes to soften the hearts of one group, he softens them. When He wishes to harden, He hardens and all peoples are subject to His way.

Were this not the case, Pharaoh would have been dealt a singularly raw deal being the only human that reached a point to be "hardened". This would be contrary to Rom 11:32. But, the text of Rom. 9 clearly claims Pharaoh is a picture, a type, of God making the clay pots he has set aside for destruction become unable to see Him, turn to Him, repent to Him. And the rebuttal question of, "How can He still find fault, for who resists His will?" is anticipated by Paul. Go read his answer. Tough luck, people. We have no business saying God cannot run His universe.

Rom. 11 is the same argument on Israel. They have been temporarily hardened and considered "enemies" for the sake of opening the way for the Gentiles to receive the mercy. And, incidentally, since there is really no such word as "Gentiles", it is simply "all other nations", this means that the people outside of Israel are currently getting the great dose of mercy now. But, that window will close someday and God will turn back to Israel to work on them.

33 posted on 05/02/2010 11:51:43 AM PDT by Dutchboy88
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To: Dutchboy88
Dutchboy I would like to thank you for your well thought out answer. But my statement "To me it seems to say God's mercy is universally available to ALL, but it can be accepted or rejected by the individual Soul." is still my position.

And here is why, From man's limited position in space/time, ie. the present, he has freewill and is free to go to the left or to the right, to accept or deny, but as you say God's is transcendent and has foreknowledge, but I do not see how that limits man's freewill or God's willingness to have mercy for all.

So how do I define Mercy "clemency: leniency and compassion shown toward offenders by a person or agency charged with administering justice"

Since we are all offenders saved and unsaved wouldn't God's salvation be available to all who have freewill to accept it or reject it?
34 posted on 05/07/2010 4:55:12 PM PDT by WhatsItAllAbout
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To: WhatsItAllAbout; Dr. Eckleburg; fish hawk; RnMomof7; Forest Keeper; MarkBsnr
You are welcome, but your response is peculiar. "From man's limited position in space/time, ie. the present, he has freewill and is free to go to the left or to the right, to accept or deny, but as you say God's is transcendent and has foreknowledge, but I do not see how that limits man's freewill or God's willingness to have mercy for all."

Not certain if you are not reading my answer, or you did not catch the concepts, but your response does not address what I wrote.

To wit...I wrote that God's foreknowledge is not the constraining factor, but rather the constraining factor is His predestining all individuals. I simply stated that the REASON that His foreknowledge is absolute, perfect, without error, and true is that it is a reflection of His aboslute, perfect, and error free control of all matters occurring, including where individuals end up. There is not a maverick molecule in existence.

And I noted, if His foreknowledge is absolutely perfect, then that means what He foreknows is absolutely going to occur and if it is absolutely going to occur, then no other outcome could occur in its place. I did not, and never would, say that this absolute control is detectable by man. You and I cannot feel the genius of this "management", nor can any other existent being. Satan cannot "feel" the limits, direction, and control that the God of ALL HEAVEN AND EARTH is exerting upon him...but it is happening to Satan's peril.

Now, this "feeling" that you can go left or right without any perception of control does not mean that the "feeling" is correct. On the contrary, the Scriptures inform us the opposite is happening, Prov. 16:9, "The mind of man plans his way, But the Lord directs his steps." You may think you picked the red sox over the green sox, but your plans were being managed by God. This goes for the apparent random events of the universe. Prov. 16:33, "The die is rolled into the lap, But its every decision is from the Lord." There is no such thing as real chance, real randomness, real anything that this not being ultimately done by God. Again, I am NOT SAYING you can feel it. If you wish, I can provide some 30 passages that state this unequivocally.

Now, if that fact is acceptable, I can from that understand how it is that God is really fashioning all of the decisions of a man's heart and their ultimate destinations. If you trust Christ, if you turn to Him, aware of your desparate sin, then that understanding is not ultimately originating from you. It is because in eons past, your Heavenly Father set His heart upon you to draw you to Himself. The credit is His.

Imagine, not only is the Rescue itself accomplished by Christ (the vicarious atoning death of Jesus instead of you), but the very fact of your heart being broken to come and partake of Him, is due to Him. This position of utter dependency is what the Gospel is really all about. There is no part of this that we can trace to us. This Monergistic work (singularly and only God at work in you) is what removes the opportunity to boast. You cannot say, "Well, at least I decided to follow Jesus and those evil men did not." Such is a form of adoration of my own works.

But, notice, if He decreed you to be adopted in ages past (in Ephesians Paul says it was before the foundation of the world 1:4), then He set in motion all that must have transpired to get you to turn to Him, this is such utter and unbounded love that He expressed toward you that you ought to have one and only one person to thank...God.

So, "mercy" is defined not as giving anyone and everyone who wants it salvation. Rather, "mercy" is God deciding to set some free from the punishment that the rest will not escape. And Paul knows when the Romans understand what he is arguing will say, "Then how can He still find fault, for who escapes His will?" But, the answer is...that is just the way it is.

And, yes, of course we are all offenders. But, your conclusion this should imply, "...salvation be available to all who have freewill to accept it or reject it?" contains those two errors. It assumes the Scripture teaches "freewill" and it assumes the Scripture teaches anyone should be able to choose salvation. Unfortunately, neither of these comport with the text.

I will add as a postscript that you might argue one could find all kinds of places where Scripture calls you to "decide". Such demands do not address whether such a decision is entirely yours to make. It simply states, "Decide". You are reading into it that the decision is to be unaffected, unmanaged, uncontrolled by God. This is often the claim regarding John 3:16. But read the verse closely, John simply states a fact. He does not make an open offer. John 6:44 makes it crystal clear that "No one comes to Me unless the Father draws him."

35 posted on 05/08/2010 9:52:56 AM PDT by Dutchboy88
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To: Dutchboy88
I searched for a line or two in your post to highlight, but it was impossible. ALL your post is God's truth. AMEN!

.I wrote that God's foreknowledge is not the constraining factor, but rather the constraining factor is His predestining all individuals. I simply stated that the REASON that His foreknowledge is absolute, perfect, without error, and true is that it is a reflection of His aboslute, perfect, and error free control of all matters occurring, including where individuals end up. There is not a maverick molecule in existence.

And I noted, if His foreknowledge is absolutely perfect, then that means what He foreknows is absolutely going to occur and if it is absolutely going to occur, then no other outcome could occur in its place. I did not, and never would, say that this absolute control is detectable by man. You and I cannot feel the genius of this "management", nor can any other existent being. Satan cannot "feel" the limits, direction, and control that the God of ALL HEAVEN AND EARTH is exerting upon him...but it is happening to Satan's peril.

Now, this "feeling" that you can go left or right without any perception of control does not mean that the "feeling" is correct. On the contrary, the Scriptures inform us the opposite is happening, Prov. 16:9, "The mind of man plans his way, But the Lord directs his steps." You may think you picked the red sox over the green sox, but your plans were being managed by God. This goes for the apparent random events of the universe. Prov. 16:33, "The die is rolled into the lap, But its every decision is from the Lord." There is no such thing as real chance, real randomness, real anything that this not being ultimately done by God. Again, I am NOT SAYING you can feel it. If you wish, I can provide some 30 passages that state this unequivocally.

Now, if that fact is acceptable, I can from that understand how it is that God is really fashioning all of the decisions of a man's heart and their ultimate destinations. If you trust Christ, if you turn to Him, aware of your desparate sin, then that understanding is not ultimately originating from you. It is because in eons past, your Heavenly Father set His heart upon you to draw you to Himself. The credit is His.

Imagine, not only is the Rescue itself accomplished by Christ (the vicarious atoning death of Jesus instead of you), but the very fact of your heart being broken to come and partake of Him, is due to Him. This position of utter dependency is what the Gospel is really all about. There is no part of this that we can trace to us. This Monergistic work (singularly and only God at work in you) is what removes the opportunity to boast. You cannot say, "Well, at least I decided to follow Jesus and those evil men did not." Such is a form of adoration of my own works.

But, notice, if He decreed you to be adopted in ages past (in Ephesians Paul says it was before the foundation of the world 1:4), then He set in motion all that must have transpired to get you to turn to Him, this is such utter and unbounded love that He expressed toward you that you ought to have one and only one person to thank...God.

So, "mercy" is defined not as giving anyone and everyone who wants it salvation. Rather, "mercy" is God deciding to set some free from the punishment that the rest will not escape. And Paul knows when the Romans understand what he is arguing will say, "Then how can He still find fault, for who escapes His will?" But, the answer is...that is just the way it is.

And, yes, of course we are all offenders. But, your conclusion this should imply, "...salvation be available to all who have freewill to accept it or reject it?" contains those two errors. It assumes the Scripture teaches "freewill" and it assumes the Scripture teaches anyone should be able to choose salvation. Unfortunately, neither of these comport with the text.

I will add as a postscript that you might argue one could find all kinds of places where Scripture calls you to "decide". Such demands do not address whether such a decision is entirely yours to make. It simply states, "Decide". You are reading into it that the decision is to be unaffected, unmanaged, uncontrolled by God. This is often the claim regarding John 3:16. But read the verse closely, John simply states a fact. He does not make an open offer. John 6:44 makes it crystal clear that "No one comes to Me unless the Father draws him."

Every word gets an AMEN! The Christian distinctive is real and God-ordained. The temporal world seeks to tell us it's all up to men, but the truth is that now and always it is up to God. His call. Thank God.

36 posted on 05/08/2010 1:05:30 PM PDT by Dr. Eckleburg ("I don't think they want my respect; I think they want my submission." - Flemming Rose)
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To: Dr. Eckleburg

Such kind words. Thank you.


37 posted on 05/08/2010 2:11:04 PM PDT by Dutchboy88
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To: Dutchboy88; Dr. Eckleburg
You have made many good arguments, but if your "hard deterministic" view is correct, what's the point?

Why does God go to all the trouble to create a Universe and populate it with little predetermined puppets?

Let me ask you this, was Jesus a man? Didn't he have a choice to go to the cross or was he just going through the predetermined motions?

I am a firm believer in "Compatibilism" as defined below. See the link at The basic philosophical positions on the problem of free


"The basic philosophical positions on the problem of free will can be divided in accordance with the answers they provide to two questions:

Is determinism true?

Does free will exist?

Determinism is roughly defined as the view that all current and future events are causally necessitated by past events combined with the laws of nature. Neither determinism nor its opposite, indeterminism, are positions in the debate about free will.[1]

Compatibilism (also called soft determinism) is the view that the assumption of free will and the existence of a concept of determinism are compatible with each other; this is opposed to incompatibilism which is the view that there is no way to reconcile a belief in a deterministic universe with a belief in a concept of free will beyond that of a perceived existence.[2]

Hard determinism is the version of incompatibilism that accepts the assumption of determinism and rejects the idea that humans have any free will.[3]

Libertarianism agrees with hard determinism only in rejecting compatibilism. Libertarians accept the existence of a concept of free will along with an assumption of indeterminism to some extent. Some of its proponents reject physical determinism and argue for some version of physical indeterminism that is compatible with freedom.[4] Others are Metaphysical libertarians who appeal to mind-body dualism to argue a special case for sentient beings.

The theory of determinism has been challenged from the earliest philosophers, notably Epicurus[5] and Lucretius,[6] to the latest theory of quantum mechanics, which postulates irreducible physical indeterminacy.

The standard argument against the existence of free will[7] is very simple. Either determinism is true or indeterminism is true. These exhaust the logical possibilities.[8] If determinism is true, we are not free. If indeterminism is true, our actions are random and our will lacks the control to be morally responsible."


I know Jesus was theological first and foremost a Jew, so when I have these kinds of questions I like to see what the Old Rabbis had to say on the subject, see the comment from the "Pirkei Avoth" below.


Below is an excerpt from Wikipedia at this Link Predestination"

Jewish views

See also: Free will In Jewish thought

Generally speaking Reform Judaism has no strong doctrine of predestination. Some critics[who?] claim that the idea that God is omnipotent and omniscient didn't formally exist in Judaism during the Biblical era, but rather was a later development due to the influence of neo-Platonic and neo-Aristotelian philosophy. Some modern Jewish thinkers in the 20th century (for example, Martin Buber) have resolved the dialectical tension by holding that God is simply not omnipotent, in the commonly used sense of that word. These thinkers are primarily not Orthodox Jews. Orthodox Jewish rabbis generally affirm that God must be viewed as omnipotent, but they have varying definitions of what the word omnipotent means. Thus one finds that some Modern Orthodox theologians[who?] have views that are essentially the same as non-Orthodox theologians, but they use different terminology.

One noted Jewish philosopher, Hasdai Crescas, resolved this dialectical tension by taking the position that free-will doesn't exist. Hence all of a person's actions are pre-determined by the moment of their birth, and thus their judgment in the eyes of God (so to speak) is effectively pre-ordained. However in this scheme this is not a result of God's predetermining one's fate, but rather from the view that the universe is deterministic. Crescas's views on this topic were rejected by Judaism at large. In later centuries this idea independently developed among some in the Chabad (Lubavitch) sect of Hasidic Judaism. Many individuals within Chabad take this view seriously, and hence effectively deny the existence of free will.

However, many Chabad (Lubavitch) Jews attempt to hold both views. They affirm as infallible their rebbe's teachings that God knows and controls the fate of all, yet at the same time affirm the classical Jewish belief in free-will (i.e. no such thing as determinism). The inherent contradiction between the two results in their belief that such contradictions are only "apparent", due to man's inherent lack of ability to understand greater truths and due to the fact that Creator and Created exist in different realities.

One does not have to be a Chabad Hassid to believe in this, however. It is enough to read the statement in Pirkei Avot: "Everything is predetermined but freedom of will is given." The same idea is strongly repeated by Rambam (Mishneh Torah, Laws of Repentance, Chapter 5).

Many other Jews (Orthodox, Conservative, Reform and secular) affirm that since free-will exists, then by definition one's fate is not preordained. It is held as a tenet of faith that whether God is omniscient or not, nothing interferes with mankind's free will. Some Jewish theologians, both during the medieval era and today, have attempted to formulate a philosophy in which free will is preserved, while also affirming that God has knowledge of what decisions people will make in the future. Whether or not these two ideas are mutually compatible, or whether there is a contradiction between the two, is still a matter of great study and interest in philosophy today.

In Rabbinic literature, there is much discussion as to the apparent contradiction between God's omniscience and free will. The representative view is that "Everything is foreseen; yet free will is given" (Rabbi Akiva, Pirkei Avoth 3:15). Based on this understanding, the problem is formally described as a paradox, beyond our understanding."
38 posted on 05/08/2010 6:57:45 PM PDT by WhatsItAllAbout
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To: Dutchboy88; Dr. Eckleburg
One other point I would like to make is that your "hard deterministic" view would necessitated that God be in control of every thought as well as every action resulting from those thoughts.

So again I would ask what's the point if the universe is deterministic, and how could a man be held responsible for his actions if God controls every molecule, in his body and every thought he thinks and there is no randomness in the universe?
39 posted on 05/08/2010 8:18:55 PM PDT by WhatsItAllAbout
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To: Dutchboy88; Dr. Eckleburg
Sorry, the links above didn't work, the links below should.

The basic philosophical positions on the problem of free

Link to Predestination
40 posted on 05/08/2010 8:40:38 PM PDT by WhatsItAllAbout
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