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1 posted on 04/05/2014 7:41:08 PM PDT by Zionist Conspirator
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To: Zionist Conspirator

I’m puzzled like you.

Infield fly?


2 posted on 04/05/2014 7:44:25 PM PDT by Scrambler Bob (You can count my felonies by looking at my FR replies.)
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To: Zionist Conspirator

If the runner stayed on first I would think he would still be safe but I would imagine that he would be well down the line if he ran on contact.


3 posted on 04/05/2014 7:47:01 PM PDT by cripplecreek (REMEMBER THE RIVER RAISIN!)
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To: Zionist Conspirator

On a caught fly ball (I believe that is the situation you described), the runners on base must tag up (return and touch the base that they were originally on, after the ball is caught) before they can proceed. IF, after the ball is caught and before the runner ‘tags up’, the fielder touches the base (or throws it to a teammate who touches the base), the runner is ‘out’.


4 posted on 04/05/2014 7:47:09 PM PDT by El Cid (Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house...)
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To: Zionist Conspirator

ONLY way that scenario works is if man is doubled off 2B..but you say only one on.

If he had taken it on a hop and stepped on 2B and thrown to 1B it would not have been ‘unassisted’.

You sure runners were not on 1st and 2nd?

Like I say ONLY way that ‘scenario’ works.


6 posted on 04/05/2014 7:48:48 PM PDT by xrmusn ((6/98 --"I would agree with you BUT that would make both of us wrong".))
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To: Zionist Conspirator

Runner at first had to have started running before tagging the bag. Since it was a liner that was caught with no ground contact, the runner would have been required to remain on base, tag up, and then run.

The penalty for running before the ball is caught, if discovered, the runner will be called out.


7 posted on 04/05/2014 7:49:10 PM PDT by Nifster
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To: Zionist Conspirator

I don’t much about baseball, but I think the batter was out when the ball was caught and the guy on first was out when he tagged first base, no reason to throw to first because he was already out.


8 posted on 04/05/2014 7:49:20 PM PDT by ThomasThomas (Yes, You are always right /S)
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To: Zionist Conspirator
1. I don't think the infield fly rule would apply in the case of a line drive -- even a soft one.

2. Are you sure the shortstop didn't run past second base and tag Marte? Was Marte running on the play?

9 posted on 04/05/2014 7:49:26 PM PDT by Alberta's Child ("I've never seen such a conclave of minstrels in my life.")
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To: Zionist Conspirator

bttt


11 posted on 04/05/2014 7:51:13 PM PDT by EveningStar
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To: Zionist Conspirator
RE: 4

I 'sped read' your description and missed a couple of important points. What you described makes no sense to me... If the ball was not caught - then a force out at 2nd base, but the batter would not be out. If the ball was caught, batter out and no force out on 2nd base... I agree - mystery to me.

12 posted on 04/05/2014 7:51:41 PM PDT by El Cid (Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house...)
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To: Zionist Conspirator

Now that I have giving more thought. We must know..

“Who was on first?”


13 posted on 04/05/2014 7:52:47 PM PDT by ThomasThomas (Yes, You are always right /S)
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To: Zionist Conspirator
From ESPN's play-by-play account............

Pittsburgh - Bottom of 1st
SCORE
Shelby Miller pitching for St. Louis STL PIT
S Marte walked. 0 0
T Snider lined out to shortstop, S Marte tagged out at second. 0 0
A McCutchen popped out to second. 0 0
0 Runs, 0 Hits, 0 Errors

16 posted on 04/05/2014 7:57:28 PM PDT by hole_n_one
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To: Zionist Conspirator
I just watched the play you mentioned and took a screen capture. He actually tagged the runner (Marte) rather than stepping on the bag. Although it does happen right at second.


23 posted on 04/05/2014 8:03:14 PM PDT by Straight Vermonter (Posting from deep behind the Maple Curtain)
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To: Zionist Conspirator

there is no way... there had to be a runner on second...


25 posted on 04/05/2014 8:08:01 PM PDT by latina4dubya (when i have money i buy books... if i have anything left, i buy 6-inch heels and a bottle of wine...)
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To: Zionist Conspirator
Last night in the St. Louis/Pittsburgh game, bottom of the first inning: the lead-off batter, Marte, walks. Man on first. The next batter hits a broken bat liner to the shortstop who catches it and steps on second. It is called an unassisted double play.

It could not have happened this way. No offense... but I think you missed something. The only way this could have happened is if there were a runner also on second base and he did not return to second before the fielder got there.

I'm not claiming to be an expert... but I have coached baseball for several years. There are obscure rules and I still see situations I have never seen before where they apply. But I don't see any other way this could have happened.

28 posted on 04/05/2014 8:08:54 PM PDT by Mannaggia l'America
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To: Zionist Conspirator; hole_n_one

I subscribe to mlb.tv premium, and as part of that subscription I can go back and watch any game.

I just went back and cued up to the play you describe.

Martes, the player on first, WAS running to second base...looked like an attempt at the Hit and Run strategy...but the shortstop did indeed catch the ball and tag the runner, like hole_n_one said.


33 posted on 04/05/2014 8:12:49 PM PDT by SoFloFreeper
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To: Zionist Conspirator

Are you sure you were watching carefully. I just checked ESPN box scores for the game, went to the play by play and it listed “T Snider lined out to shortstop, S Marte tagged out at second.” It doesn’t say anything about stepping on the bag, it says Marte was tagged out.


43 posted on 04/05/2014 8:21:38 PM PDT by Go Gordon (Barack McGreevey Obama)
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To: Zionist Conspirator
I saw the game. He was tagged.

There is I believe, only one situation where the SS would not be forced to tag Marte out for the DP (other than throw back to 1st): Marte realizes that he is caught so dead-to-rights he doesn't even try to go back, and leaves the base path. In that case he would be out on appeal; the SS would not even need to throw to 1st or tag him. [Although I don't know if the SS would officially be scored as having an unassisted DP in this case -- I actually think he would.]

46 posted on 04/05/2014 8:23:48 PM PDT by FredZarguna (Das ist nicht nur nicht richtig, es ist nicht einmal falsch!)
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To: Zionist Conspirator

This is a slightly different question but does anyone remember the College World Series around 1989 or so. Georgia Southern was playing Oklahoma State.

Well with one man on first, the batter hits a home run. That would have put Georgia Southern ahead by one and would have won the game. However the outfield ump called that it bounced into the stands and ruled it a ground rule double. Now everyone in the stadium must have known it was a homer but the call held up and Georgia Southern lost by one run.

Now don’t tell me that the home plate umpire could not have called a meeting of the umps and changed the call. I know he could have done so but he didn’t That would seem like something the NCAA could have intervened in but they didn’t.

They showed a replay several times and there was nothing to even suggest it was a bouncer. The Umpire simply was either not watching or had the Sun in his eye or was cheating. I know you can’t appeal a judgement call but the home plate umpire can at least call the umps together and get the one ump to change.
.


62 posted on 04/05/2014 8:49:35 PM PDT by yarddog (Romans 8: verses 38 and 39. "For I am persuaded".)
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To: Zionist Conspirator

The only way it could have been a double play is if there were also a runner on 2nd base....Are you sure there wasn’t?


102 posted on 04/06/2014 3:58:09 AM PDT by Hot Tabasco (Under Reagan spring always arrived on time.....)
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To: Zionist Conspirator
You obviously missed the throw to first base or the runner was tagged......here's from MLB Gameday:

Travis Snider lines into an unassisted double play, shortstop Jhonny Peralta. Starling Marte doubled off 1st.

104 posted on 04/06/2014 4:16:29 AM PDT by Hot Tabasco (Under Reagan spring always arrived on time.....)
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