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You took that completely out of context. In the SAME discourse in Matt 16, Jesus said that the Son of man would come with His fathers angels and render each man according to his works. (Paraphrase). Why would Christ speak to His disciples about living for Christ and the reward they would recieve for doing so and then change the subject for just 1 sentance???!!

Mt 16:27 For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works.

So your saying Christ came in glory with His angels and EVERY man was rewarded according to their works in 70AD, and no one saw it or heard about it? Boy, was the return of Christ over played. How many times was this great day prophesied, and written about, just to silently slip past the whole world.

Matthew 16:27, and 28, are two separate accounts of time. V-27 is when the Father chooses to end the age, and verse 28 is a preview of what this Jesus who everyone saw as a nice passive meek man, and what He would look like when He comes in his power at that time.

Have you found a way to spin around the fact that John wrote his books after 70AD, and he saw nothing significant enough about the return of Christ to bother mentioning it?

Have you found a way to spin around the fact that John wrote his books after 70AD, and he saw nothing significant enough about the return of Christ to bother mentioning it?

JH,
The destruction of Soloman's temple was the single biggest event to happen before Christ's emmergiance.
Herod's was said to be even greater.

Yet John, nor ANY other New Testament writer found what Josephus filled a HUGE book with significant enough to even hint about?
How many times is the priesthood (nonexistent AFTER AD 70) mentioned in Revelation as still existent. Even the pursecutions and deceptions of those "synogogue of Satan" members is brought up in Revelation.
THEY NO LONGER PERSECUTED THE CHURCH AFTER AD 70!!

YOUR only evidence is that John was spotted on Patmos in AD 96. All that proves is a non-disappearance rapture.

So your saying Christ came in glory with His angels and EVERY man was rewarded according to their works in 70AD, and no one saw it or heard about it? Boy, was the return of Christ over played. How many times was this great day prophesied, and written about, just to silently slip past the whole world.

Not only did the whole world know what happened in AD70, the known world was involved. The Roman Empire. And Josephus recorded it all.

You miss your own Bible friend.
God came plenty of times "in the clouds" in the Old testament in judgement against nations like Egypt, Babylon etc.

All Christ did was use this same apocolyptic language again to pronounce judgement on those who would be destroyed for the blood of the martyrs and saints (Matt 23:29-38), that was the Babylon of Revelation, the synogogue of Satan (Rev 17-18).

1. Is God going to judge 2 different nations for the same crime (shedding of all the innocent blood on earth)? Babylon and Israel?
2. Is Christ going to speak a sermon on the cost and reward off discipleship to end it with 1 completely unrelated sentance? Even when it follows his pattern to "prophecy" then give a time text?" (Matt 10,, 16, 23,24, Luke 21:32, etc?

God Bless Friend!