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Have you found a way to spin around the fact that John wrote his books after 70AD, and he saw nothing significant enough about the return of Christ to bother mentioning it?

JH,
The destruction of Soloman's temple was the single biggest event to happen before Christ's emmergiance.
Herod's was said to be even greater.

Yet John, nor ANY other New Testament writer found what Josephus filled a HUGE book with significant enough to even hint about?
How many times is the priesthood (nonexistent AFTER AD 70) mentioned in Revelation as still existent. Even the pursecutions and deceptions of those "synogogue of Satan" members is brought up in Revelation.
THEY NO LONGER PERSECUTED THE CHURCH AFTER AD 70!!

YOUR only evidence is that John was spotted on Patmos in AD 96. All that proves is a non-disappearance rapture.

So your saying Christ came in glory with His angels and EVERY man was rewarded according to their works in 70AD, and no one saw it or heard about it? Boy, was the return of Christ over played. How many times was this great day prophesied, and written about, just to silently slip past the whole world.

Not only did the whole world know what happened in AD70, the known world was involved. The Roman Empire. And Josephus recorded it all.

You miss your own Bible friend.
God came plenty of times "in the clouds" in the Old testament in judgement against nations like Egypt, Babylon etc.

All Christ did was use this same apocolyptic language again to pronounce judgement on those who would be destroyed for the blood of the martyrs and saints (Matt 23:29-38), that was the Babylon of Revelation, the synogogue of Satan (Rev 17-18).

1. Is God going to judge 2 different nations for the same crime (shedding of all the innocent blood on earth)? Babylon and Israel?
2. Is Christ going to speak a sermon on the cost and reward off discipleship to end it with 1 completely unrelated sentance? Even when it follows his pattern to "prophecy" then give a time text?" (Matt 10,, 16, 23,24, Luke 21:32, etc?

God Bless Friend!

YOUR only evidence is that John was spotted on Patmos in AD 96. All that proves is a non-disappearance rapture.

Well, I guess I did ask for your spin, and you gave it to me.

Arguing whether or not the Lord returned in 70AD is like arguing with someone who claims the world is flat. Once you accept their claim it’s flat and forget that we have satellite photos proving the worlds a sphere, then you can get into some pretty interesting discussions.

Our satellite photos prove otherwise, just as history and scripture written after 70AD,prove otherwise for me. The facy that the disciple Jesus loved, John, must have been condemned to eternal hell, since he must not have been worthy to escape, and the fact that there is no account in any history, of any nation, that was aware of it happening.

All this has to be ignored before one can even start to discuss another option.

Prove to me why the apostle John didn't mention it, why he missed the rapture if it happened, and how the whole world missed the event, and why it's not even alluded to in history, and not just whatiff’s, then you have a foundation to warrant more discussion.