Posted on 12/23/2013 7:16:44 PM PST by Uri’el-2012
Why I believe the Rapture of the Church
will take place between December 25, 2013,
and January 4, 2014
The Lord has been giving me pieces to a puzzle for the last 13 years, leading me to the date for the firstfruits Rapture of the Church. The puzzle ends between December 25, 2013, and January 4, 2014. I very strongly believe that the Rapture will take place on January 3/4, 2014. However, it is possible that the puzzle can end as early as December 25, 2013.
Just wanted to make sure you knew what the gospel of the grace of God is. Do you know what the mystery is that Paul speaks of?
There is an incredible Satanic spirit going on in that thread (When is the Rapture?). I’ve pretty much extracted myself from it.
The very first thing one has to figure out is what is said, when it is said, who it was said to and how it applies, AND, believe what you read...
John 6:39 And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.Joh 6:37 All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.
Joh 6:38 For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.
Joh 6:39 And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.
Who did God give to Jesus???
Mat_15:24 But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
When did/does this happen???
Rom 11:25 For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in.
Rom 11:26 And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:
Rom 11:27 For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins.
This happens after the Rapture...After the church, is gone...At the end of the Tribulation...It is written doctrinally to the lost sheep of the house of Israel concerning the return of Jesus at the 2nd Coming...
Joh 6:40 And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day.
Who has seen Jesus??? You ever see Jesus??? I haven't...
Mat_15:24 But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
Luk 2:30 For mine eyes have seen thy salvation, as says Simeon...
Compared to those of us who have not seen Jesus,,,
1Pe 1:8 Whom having not seen, ye love; in whom, though now ye see him not, yet believing, ye rejoice with joy unspeakable and full of glory:
They saw Jesus...Who else will see Jesus???
Those during the Tribulation may not see Jesus but they will see the wrath of Jesus and know that it comes from him...
Joh 6:44 No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.
So who does God draw??? And how does he draw them??? The next verse tells us...
Joh 6:45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.
God draws those who have been taught and learned the Old Testament...Did you learn and live the Old Testament before you came to Jesus??? No???
This is written to observant Jews before the Resurrection and to the Jews and others will will listen to the 144,000 ministers of the Tribulation, AFTER the temporary church is taken out of the way...
The church on Earth didn't/doesn't exist before the Resurrection or after the beginning of the Tribulation...Our main purpose was/is to make God's people, the Jews jealous and draw them to him...
This is just a little, short summary of all of the tons of scripture which pertain to this subject...I don't expect you to accept it...I just wanted you to know that there has been plenty of biblical research into the subject by multitudes of people...
Do these scriptures have spiritual application for the church??? Absolutely...Spiritually, but not doctrinally...
So this touches on one verse...If I get time or any one is interested, I will go on to others...
>> “It was a MYSTERY, hid in God from the foundation of the world” <<
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The Mystery that Paul solved was the remarriage of Yeshua to the same bride he divorced for her iniquity, now made permissible under Torah by the husband’s death for her sins.
Yes, it was indeed the purpose of Paul’s ministry, and the reason Paul had been prepared by Yehova at the feet of Gamaliel. The gentiles to which Paul was called were the out of covenant lost sheep of the House of Israel, living dispersed along the northern shore of the Mediterranean.
I have an (old version) Scofield but I don't use it...I've never read anything by Darby...I use an Oxford bible with no notes in it...
The “fullness of the gentiles” is the out of covenant House of Israel. And that is also the identity of the church.
Paul was the first to minister primarily to them, and from then on that was the calling of every other minister of the gospel of Yeshua Ha Massiach.
It is the attempt to divide the indivisible that has spawned the false gospel of pre-tribulation rapture. They are contorting their minds to take out that which is the object of Satan’s tribulation.
Pray for them.
No it isn't...The out of convenant house of Israel is, Israel...The out of covenant everyone else is Gentiles...When those from either group come to trust in Jesus, they leave those groups and they become Christians; the church...
And when God shuts the door to those of both groups, the times of the Gentiles will be fulfilled since the eyes of (most of) Israel have been blinded so they don't see it anyway...
Do you understand that we are presently about 13 years into the seventh millennium? How could all the grief of the seals not almost be over?
Matthew 24:
[4] And Jesus answered and said unto them, Take heed that no man deceive you.
[5] For many shall come in my name, saying, I am Christ; and shall deceive many.
[6] And ye shall hear of wars and rumours of wars: see that ye be not troubled: for all these things must come to pass, but the end is not yet.
[7] For nation shall rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom: and there shall be famines, and pestilences, and earthquakes, in divers places.
[8] All these are the beginning of sorrows.
[9] Then shall they deliver you up to be afflicted, and shall kill you: and ye shall be hated of all nations for my name's sake.
[10] And then shall many be offended, and shall betray one another, and shall hate one another.
[11] And many false prophets shall rise, and shall deceive many.
[12] And because iniquity shall abound, the love of many shall wax cold.
[13] But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved.
He was preparing his disciples for it to begin soon after he departed. It did. Jerusalem was sacked and the temple gone 40 years after he departed. Persecution of his people intensified after that. At least a million were slain just for keeping Torah by the end of the fourth century. That was the reason that the Colosseum was built; the persecution was circus for the Roman masses.
The gentiles of the NT were mostly out of covenant Hebrews.
Most of the people whose eyes are at least partly open are of the lost sheep of Israel. But really, the church of our day is incredibly blind.
Do you not believe what you read??? Some Jews were living within Gentile communities...
Does it say that Jews were living amongst the 'church'??? And then to teach them??? Teach the church what???
It says what it says and means what it says...
Jesus tells his disciples that he's going away...Obviously some Jews are dispersed among the Gentiles, i.e., Arabs, Greeks, etc. who lived in their own communities... Then the Jews asked if he was going to go to those Jews (only) who are dispersed among the heathen...And will Jesus teach the heathen (Gentiles) also...
The Gentiles are not the church...The Gentiles are not Jew of any persuasion...
Well that's your version...The bible tells it differently...
>> “Do you not believe what you read??? Some Jews were living within Gentile communities...” <<
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Do you read at all?
The “Dispersed” are and were at that time the northern tribes.
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does your ‘Bible’ have “DELL” in a square up in the corner of the cover?
So you see differences in eschatological views as a case for heresy?
Pre tribs are now Gnostics?
As I understand your position, the seals are the birth pains?
*shrugs* I am just trying to make it read ok... The 2Th 2:6 'And now ye know' is declaratory and must speak to what was already said... And the 'he' must also be related uptext (it assumes we know 'he'from what was related)...
So what is it that we 'now know', which we didn't know before?
We know WHY the 2nd coming is not any time soon (according to the time it was written). We know there must be a great falling away, and the man of sin will be revealed by that falling away, and that all of that will have to happen before the Messiah appears again.
But we don't know of anyone who restrains anything.
There are a set of conditions that 'restrain' the 2nd coming... The 'what withholdeth' could be those conditions... Or the 'what' is ambiguously assigned, and the conditions are preloaded onto 'he', because the conditions causing the 'withholding' await his unveiling...
And the 'he' can only be Messiah or the man of sin, because those are the only two choices in the previous text. And I suppose that only the man of sin would qualify for being 'taken away' (out of those two choices)... and the one who letteth is the one who is taken away. So in my mind, 'letteth' must take on the meaning of 'holding fast', refusing to let go... hanging on to what he has until the bitter end.
The plain text of it is not cryptic. But then I am a literalist in the fundamentalist sense. I prefer the plain meaning.
No it isn't...The out of convenant house of Israel is, Israel...The out of covenant everyone else is Gentiles...When those from either group come to trust in Jesus, they leave those groups and they become Christians; the church...
No. editor-surveyor is right. the 'fullness of the gentiles' is defined in the Old Testament. as is the term 'gentile' which means 'without or outside of covenant' (The term 'Gentile Christians' cracks me up every time). There is only Covenant and non-covenant (gentile), and nothing else. And since the new covenant is made with the House of Judah and the House of Israel, and the gentiles are inherited by them (adopted), one had better hope that the House of Israel (Ephraim specifically) is the 'fullness of the Gentiles'...
And when God shuts the door to those of both groups, the times of the Gentiles will be fulfilled since the eyes of (most of) Israel have been blinded so they don't see it anyway...
You'll then have to show me where the House of Israel was rejected. The House of Judah, no doubt. But the House of Israel (lo ammi, Not my People) are a different story altogether.
You've got to read the front of the Book. That is where you will find these things defined.
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