John 6:53 - Unless you eat My flesh (open)

Proclaiming The Gospel Ministries ^ | unknown | Mike Gendron

[Manfred the Wonder Dawg]

Unless You Eat the Flesh of the Son of Man and Drink His Blood You Have No Life In You

Are these words of Jesus from John 6:53 to be taken literally or figuratively? The Roman Catholic Church teaches the context of John chapter six and the above headlined verse 53 are literal. Thus Jesus is giving absolute and unconditional requirements for eternal life. In fact, this literal interpretation forms the foundation for Rome's doctrine of transubstantiation -- the miraculous changing of bread and wine into the living Christ, His body and blood, soul and divinity. Each Catholic priest is said to have the power to call Jesus down from the right hand of the Father when he elevates the wafer and whispers the words "Hoc corpus meus est." Catholics believe as they consume the lifeless wafer they are actually eating and drinking the living body and blood of Jesus Christ. This is a vital and important step in their salvation and a doctrine they must believe and accept to become a Catholic.

If priests indeed have the exclusive power to change finite bread and wine into the body and blood of the infinite Christ, and if indeed consuming His body and blood is necessary for salvation, then the whole world must become Catholic to escape the wrath of God. On the other hand, if Jesus was speaking in figurative language then this teaching becomes the most blasphemous and deceptive hoax any religion could impose on its people. There is no middle ground. Therefore the question of utmost importance is -- Was the message Jesus conveyed to the Jewish multitude to be understood as literal or figurative? Rome has never presented a good argument for defending its literal interpretation. Yet there are at least seven convincing reasons why this passage must be taken figuratively.

Counterfeit Miracle

There is no Biblical precedent where something supernatural occurred where the outward evidence indicated no miracle had taken place. (The wafer and wine look, taste and feel the same before and after the supposed miracle of transubstantion). When Jesus changed water into wine, all the elements of water changed into the actual elements of wine.

Drinking Blood Forbidden

The Law of Moses strictly forbade Jews from drinking blood (Leviticus 17:10-14) A literal interpretation would have Jesus teaching the Jews to disobey the Mosaic Law. This would have been enough cause to persecute Jesus. (See John 5:16)

Biblical Disharmony

When John 6:53 is interpreted literally it is in disharmony with the rest of the Bible. "Unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink His blood, you have no life in you," gives no hope of eternal life to any Christian who has not consumed the literal body and blood of Christ. It opposes hundreds of Scriptures that declare justification and salvation are by faith alone in Christ.

Produces Dilemma

It appears that the "eating and drinking" in verse 6:54 and the "believing" in verse 6:40 produce the same result - eternal life. If both are literal we have a dilemma. What if a person "believes" but does not "eat or drink"? Or what if a person "eats and drinks" but does not "believe?" This could happen any time a non-believer walked into a Catholic Church and received the Eucharist. Does this person have eternal life because he met one of the requirements but not the other? The only possible way to harmonize these two verses is to accept one verse as figurative and one as literal.

Figurative In Old Testament

The Jews were familiar with "eating and drinking" being used figuratively in the Old Testament to describe the appropriation of divine blessings to one's innermost being. It was God's way of providing spiritual nourishment for the soul. (See Jeremiah 15:16; Isaiah 55:1-3; and Ezekiel 2:8, 3:1)

Jesus Confirmed

Jesus informed His disciples there were times when He spoke figuratively (John 16:25) and often used that type of language to describe Himself. The Gospel of John records seven figurative declarations Jesus made of Himself -- "the bread of life" (6:48), "the light of the world" (8:12), "the door" (10:9), "the good shepherd" (10:11), "the resurrection and the life" (11:25), "the way, the truth and the life" (14:6), and "the true vine" (15:1). He also referred to His body as the temple (2:19).

Words Were Spiritual

Jesus ended this teaching by revealing "the words I have spoken to you are spirit" (6:63). As with each of the seven miracles in John's Gospel, Jesus uses the miracle to convey a spiritual truth. Here Jesus has just multiplied the loaves and fish and uses a human analogy to teach the necessity of spiritual nourishment. This is consistent with His teaching on how we are to worship God. "God is Spirit and His worshippers must worship in spirit and in truth" (John 4:24). As we worship Christ He is present spiritually, not physically. In fact, Jesus can only be bodily present at one place at one time. His omnipresence refers only to His spirit. It is impossible for Christ to be bodily present in thousands of Catholic Churches around the world.

When Jesus is received spiritually, one time in the heart, there is no need to receive him physically, over and over again in the stomach.

[mnehring]

esthio, not phago esthio

[mnehring]

Directly from the greek:

ἐσθίω,v {es-thee'-o} 1) to eat 2) to eat (consume) a thing 2a) to take food, eat a meal 3) metaph. to devour, consume

http://www.greekbible.com/l.php?e)sqi/w_v-2aas-p--_p

http://www.greekbible.com/index.php

Phagein not used in this verse.

[wideawake]

I think wideawake may be looking at the word for Devour such as in Hebrews 10:27

No, that is esthio.

a different word trogo which does mean, as wide awake stated, to literally gnaw

That is an even more intense word, which continues the aggressiveness of the language used in the passage, starting in 6:54 - to rip with the teeth.

John 6:53, however, doesn't use either trogo nor phago esthio, just esthio.

Again, I have to disagree.

[mnehring]

What Greek bible site or version are you looking at? Here is my source for word by word translations.

http://www.greekbible.com/index.php

[wideawake]

The twelfth word in the Greek text you just posted clearly reads phaghte.

[CharlesWayneCT]

"My flesh is real food, my blood is real drink."

Because it is. Not literally, but in truth. Man cannot live by bread alone, but by every word that proceeds from the mouth of God.

If John's words state clearly that we must drink the blood of Jesus to be saved, how can we be saved by the Priest drinking the blood?

[wideawake]

The same base text that your source uses.

[joebuck]

I am looking at the UBS (3rd Edition) and the word is esthio.

[wideawake]

If John's words state clearly that we must drink the blood of Jesus to be saved, how can we be saved by the Priest drinking the blood?

The blood is present in the flesh, because it is living flesh.

[wideawake]

I have that edition at home, I believe. I will check it.

[mnehring]

Interesting because when I click on it it says it is esthio. ἐσθίω

[mnehring]

Imagine what the poor translators back in the 1600s had to deal with having no cross references and word of mouth as to deeper meanings of items.

[free_life]

A catholic could prove this by spitting out the wafer turned to flesh and wine turned to blood and have it tested.

Jesus did not teach cannibalism.

[CharlesWayneCT]

I am confused. On the online greek new testament, it is esthio.

esqiw,v {es-thee'-o}

online greek bible

It looked the same on another online bible I checked. I have to note that I don't read greek. But I know how to recognize some letters, and input words into lexicons.

It just seems odd that we are having an argument over which word is in the greek. Is it possible we have different greek bibles, and the one you use supports your contention?

[CharlesWayneCT]

Ah, interesting. I see that now, sort of, and still wonder why we are getting different answers. But I’ve exhausted my knowledge of greek (which took all of 2 seconds).

[CharlesWayneCT]

Then why does the priest drink the wine/blood?

[mnehring]

It just seems odd that we are having an argument over which word is in the greek.

I wouldn't call it an argument, we are exploring and discussing; it is an important distinction. One word (esthio) is a passive verb that can have a figurative or metaphorical meaning. The other word (phagein or phago esthio) is a strong active verb that literally means to gnaw or chew on and generally has no metaphorical meaning (when taken literally.)

[joebuck]

I think I've figured it out. Phago is the aorist tense of esthio. The Strongs number is 5315. To wideawake's credit, this is the tense Zodhiates in his "Complete Word Study dictionary" says is being used in John 6:53 despite the fact the esthio is what appears in both UBS and NA27. BUT, Zodhiates defines the word, as used here, as:

(III) Spiritually to feed by faith and be sustained in a spiritual and eternal life (John 6:50, 51, 53). Zodhiates, S. (2000, c1992, c1993). The complete word study dictionary : New Testament (electronic ed.) (G5315).

[mnehring]

Charles, Ping 38. I was wrong on Phago not having the metaphorical or spiritual meaning and literal only.

[wmfights]

BTTT