Why Catholics Believe in the Immaculate Conception

CatholicEducation.org ^ | April 2003 | David M. Bristow

[Salvation]

Why Catholics Believe in the Immaculate Conception

DAVID M. BRISTOW

Why do Catholics believe in the Immaculate Conception? The belief means that Mary, the mother of Jesus, was preserved without sin for her entire life.

It was Mary's closeness to Christ that made her receive God's "fullness of grace" to be sinless. Without God's grace, it would have been impossible for Mary to be sinless, and she too would be like the rest of humanity. However, because of her decision to say, "yes" in giving birth to Christ, she was given a special privilege by having no sin touch her. Catholics believe that God wanted a perfectly pure woman to carry His Son, the God of the universe, for nothing else short of perfection would do.

The Immaculate Conception of Mary continues to be a major disagreement point by other Christian denominations towards the Catholic faith. Many people say that the Immaculate Conception somehow takes away from Christ's glory and message. Some will say that this belief in Mary is not found in the Bible, or that it blatantly contradicts the Bible's words. There are also thousands of people who mistakenly believe what the Catholic Church teaches about the Immaculate Conception, which unfortunately has lead to many misguided opinions. What evidence do Catholics have to defend their belief in Mary's Immaculate Conception?

Evidence from the Scriptures:

"And the angel came in unto her, and said, hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women." - Luke 1:28

It is the term "full of grace" that is emphasized by the Church when dealing with Mary's Immaculate Conception. The title "full of grace" comes from the Greek word kecharitomene, which describes a "perfection" and "abundance" of grace. In other words, Mary was proclaimed by the angel to be with a perfection of grace, which was a very powerful statement. How can Mary be completely and perfectly with God's grace, yet still have sin left in her? Christians eventually came to recognize that it was extremely possible for Mary to be without sin, especially if she was completely filled with God's grace. Luke 1:28 happens to be the only place in the Bible where anyone is addressed with the important title of "full of grace."

"…the Holy Ghost shall come upon you, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow you: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of you shall be called the Son of God." - Luke 1:35

Luke 1:35 shows Mary as the Ark of the New Covenant. According to the Old Testament, the Ark of the Covenant was the pure and holy vessel that held the Ten Commandments (the Old Covenant). The Ark was so holy in fact, that if anyone where to touch it they could actually fall down and die! It was housed in the Holy of Holies, which was a perfectly clean place where the Jewish high priests could enter only once a year according to their law (See Lev. 16:2-4). So how are Mary and the Ark related? The same language that describes God's "dwelling" place for the Old Ark is used again for Mary's overshadowing by the Holy Spirit. Put another way, the Old Ark held God's Ten Commandments and could not be touched by human hands because of its holiness. Mary, the New Ark, holds the New Covenant in her womb, which is Jesus Christ. How much holier is Christ than the Ten Commandments? It only makes sense that for Mary to hold God in her womb, she too would be completely pure and without any sin.

"I will put enmity between you and the woman, between your seed (offspring) and hers; He (she) will crush your head while you strike at his (her) heel." - Genesis 3:15

What does the book of Genesis have to do with Mary's Immaculate Conception? Genesis 3:15 is the first passage in the Bible that refers to Jesus defeating Satan on the cross. It is also the first verse that shows us how Mary would become the New Eve. The seed of the woman, who would crush the serpent's head, is Jesus. The woman at enmity, or hostility with the serpent, is Mary. It was God who put this hostility between Mary and Satan (the serpent), and it is believed to be in the same likeness as Christ's hostility for the seed of the serpent. What exactly does all this mean? For Mary to be like Christ in His hostility for Satan forever, it is very possible to say that this passage implies Mary's lack of sin. What better way is there to be in total hostility with Satan than to be in God's constant grace? As the New Eve, Mary undid the "no" of the Old Testament Eve by saying, "yes" to carry Jesus.

Evidence from History:

Pope Pius IX officially defined the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception in the year 1854. He did so with the understanding that this belief would help the Catholic faithful grow spiritually towards Christ. The belief that Mary was without sin was not "invented" as numerous people mistakenly think. Many are still under the false impression that the Immaculate Conception was not believed until the year 1854 when it was defined. What they fail to realize is that the belief itself has extremely strong roots in Church writings going well back into the 4th century.

"Every personal sin must be excluded from the Blessed Virgin Mary for the sake of the honor of God." - St. Augustine, 390 AD.

"Mary, a virgin not only undefiled but a virgin whom grace has made inviolate, free from every stain." - St. Ambrose of Milan, 340-370 AD.

"You, and your Mother are alone in this. You are wholly beautiful in every respect. There is in you, Lord, no stain, nor any spot in your Mother." - St. Ephraem, 350 AD.

In fact, there are literally dozens of cases where early Church fathers have mentioned Mary as being without sin, using such words as "All-Holy One," "All-Sinless One," and "Immaculate." It proves that the idea of Mary's sinlessness was not uncommon in the first few centuries of the Church. As time passed, the Eastern Church began to show its strong love for the Immaculate Conception with its own feast day beginning in the 8th to 9th century. By the 12th century, the Western Church was celebrating the feast of the Immaculate Conception all over Europe, and by the end of the 15th century, it was universally recognized and defended as true Christian doctrine.

 

[dangus]

Origen is a weird case. He defends the immaculate conception very precisely:
.
“The Blessed Virgin ...worthy of God, immaculate of the immaculate, most complete sanctity, perfect justice, neither deceived by the persuasion of the serpent, nor infected with his poisonous breathings.”

Yet, despite his belief that she was immaculately conceived, Origen has the notion that when she died, her faith flickered, that this doubt was the sword that was prophesied would pierce her spirit.

Apparently, this is what your source considers Origen’s belief that she sinned; it’s interesting that this supposed sin does not involve any action, but an instant of spiritual desolation.

[will of the people]

‘You apparently accept that, just as Scripture teaches, the Blessed Virgin Mary conceived a child in her womb without knowing man by the power of the Holy Spirit. Yet you can’t accept that the same Holy Spirit could also immaculately conceive the same Blessed Virgin Mary.’

1.scripture teaches that jesus was born of a virgin

2. it’s not that i ‘can’t’ accept an immaculately conceived mary, it’s that i don’t- because scripture doesn’t teach it

3. Luke 11:27-28 NIV)

As Jesus was saying these things, a woman in the crowd called out, “Blessed is the mother who gave you birth and nursed you.” He replied, “Blessed rather are those who hear the word of God and obey it.”

according to scripture, mary is blessed among women, but followers of jesus are more blessed

i’m thinking, as a follower of jesus, that i should be venerated and adored by catholics

will

[PeevedPatriot]

Whether you call this propensity "original sin" or just our natural tendency ...

We call our tendency to sin concupiscence. I'm sure you remember from your Catholic days that it's not the same thing as original sin.

we sin because we are sinners, not we are sinners because we sin.

I'm not so sure about that. Scripture is pretty clear that baptism removes sin. Acts 2:38 and 22:16 is what immediately comes to mind. If my sins were removed when I was born again in baptism, then did I not after that become a sinner because I sin?

It was the humanity of Jesus - without a sin nature because he was born of a virgin by the Holy Spirit - as well as his Deity that he was NOT a sinner. The verses that state all mankind is under the curse of sin, doesn't apply to the God/Man.

Sorry, but I don't see your logic. If Jesus was human then he had a possibility to sin if He chose to. Indeed scripture tells us he was tempted but didn't sin (Hb 4:15). And James (1:13) tells us God cannot be tempted, therefore we know it was the human nature not the deity of Christ that was tempted.

He did not need to be baptized in order to take away "original sin" nor to "get" the Holy Spirit. He WAS already God in the flesh.

Indeed.

By saying Christ and Mary are the "new" Adam and Eve, puts them both at the same level

How'd you work that out? Adam was created first, just as Jesus was before Mary. Eve was taken from Adam, just as Mary was created by God.

but Jesus is GOD, Mary will NEVER be God.

Indeed!

Adam and Eve were equals.

Scripture says Eve was created to be Adam's helper. 1 Cor 11:9 says she was created for his sake. And this was precisely the role Mary assumed. She bore and raised our Messiah. And loved him through his brutal crucifixion, which I see as her greatest act. I wouldn't have been able to be anywhere near!

There is no genuine need for Mary to be sinless.

Which is what I said in my first post on this thread. There are many things that aren't necessary that our Father in his goodness gives us. It's not necessary that we have color vision, but God gives us beauty instead of a black and white world. It's not necessary that we have tasty food and beverages. God could have given us only ingredients for a pasty mix for each meal. And nothing but water to drink. But God's gifts are more than we can ask or hope for. And such is his gift of the Immaculate Conception. Not necessary. Just more evidence of the overwhelming mercy and goodness of our God.

A blessed weekend to you too!

[PeevedPatriot]

according to scripture, mary is blessed among women, but followers of jesus are more blessed

Yes, scripture does teach that membership in his spiritual family is more blessed. Mary was blessed to be member of both spiritual and biological family.

i’m thinking, as a follower of jesus, that i should be venerated and adored by catholics

There's actually some truth in what you say if you substitute "venerated and adored" with a different word such as reverence. I'm reminded of a quote attributed to St Gregory Nazianzen: "Each of us can say to the tempter, 'Unlike you, I have not yet become an outcast from heaven through my pride. By my baptism I have become one with him. It is you that should fall prostrate before me.' "

As Catholics we believe in the divine indwelling of the Holy Trinity that comes to us in baptism. We are indeed temples of the Holy Spirit (1 Cor 6:19). We are to reverence (show honor and respect) each other as part of the corporate mystical body of Christ. As Catholics we see our fellow Christians this way, whether they are with us on earth or have preceded us into heaven.

Peace be with you.

[Coleus]

O MARY CONCEIVED WIYHOUT SIN, PRAY FOR US WHO HAVE RECOURSED TO THEE.

[Iscool]

Jesus made her without sin -- did you miss that?

There's nothing to miss because it's not true...And Jesus is the only one who ever lived that was not tempted enough to sin...A cursory examination of the scriptures will show anyone that truth...

Just another fable put out by your religion to deceive people who are searching for Jesus...

But doesn't the Bible say in Romans 3:23 that, "…all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God."

At first glance this "all have sinned" may appear to contradict a Catholic's belief in Mary's Immaculate Conception. However, on further examination, it is not an impossible verse to overcome.

Of course it appears to contradict Catholic belief because it DOES contradict Catholic belief...

For Catholics, Mary is seen as an exception to this passage, as are children under the age of reason, and mentally disabled people. With both of these examples, these groups are unable to sin because of their lack of reasoning. For example, a child who does not understand what sin is cannot sin, because the child is unaware of what is right and wrong. Now granted, a child who does not understand sin is not entirely like Mary, but it does show that there are exceptions to the "all have sinned" rule.

How low will you guys go??? This is not even a Catholic belief...This is a Protestant belief...Catholics teach that you must be baptized at birth...Without baptism at birth, you go to hell if you die...It has been that way for centuries...So now you are stealing Protestant theology to justify a sinless Mary...WoW...

What the Catholic wants to show is that there are exceptions to the rule. We understand that "all have sinned," but believe that Mary — and Jesus — are not included in this verse. The "all" in Romans 3:23 was translated from the Greek word pas. Like the usage of the word "all" today, it does not necessarily mean each and every person with no exceptions. For instance, in the same letter to the Romans (11:26), St. Paul says that "all Israel will be saved," and in Matthew 2:3 it says "all of Jerusalem" were troubled. Yet, were all of Israel going to be saved, or was each and every person in Jerusalem troubled? There are plenty of other examples like these found all throughout the Bible. The main point is that the word "all" had many different meanings in the Greek language, and that it does not rule out the possibility of exceptions in Romans 3:23.

Your religion's understanding is flawed, whether by deception or ignorance...

πᾶς
pas
pas
Including all the forms of declension; apparently a primary word; all, any, every, the whole: - all (manner of, means) alway (-s), any (one), X daily, + ever, every (one, way), as many as, + no (-thing), X throughly, whatsoever, whole, whosoever.

And this one's got to take the cake...

The fact remains that the words "Mary was without sin" are not found in the Bible. Why do Catholics continue to believe in it?

True, the words "Mary was without sin" cannot be found in the Bible. However, one will not find the direct wording of "Mary was with sin" either.

And the Bible does not say that Mary had the appearance of a Banana Split , or a Klingon...But could she have??? NO...Because God said we are made in the likeness of God, just as Jesus said ALL have sinned...

Quit perverting the Bible...

[Running On Empty]

“Surely, such a perfect person could not go unnoticed all those years, could she? Did her parents ever say anything to anyone about what a perfect, obedient child she was and all the neighbors were in awe of her and jealous of her parents?”

“...somebody would have made it known an exemplary woman like her lived.”

Jesus Himself chose to experience the same kind of “anonymity”.

“Isn’t he the son of the carpenter?”

Wanting to be noticed, acknowledged, looked up to, held in high esteem, set in a place of honor, being set apart as special...these are all marks of pride.

For 33 years, Jesus willed to live among his people known only as the “son of the carpenter.”

What He chose for himself, he shared with his mother.

So it was at Bethlehem, where she went unnoticed and without special care and attention and He was born in the silence of a stall.

And as He “humbled Himself to death on a Cross”, so she stood there for three hours at the foot of the Cross, that Cross which was an ignominious death.

And then...in his 7 last words from the Cross, Jesus gave his mother place.

“Son, behold your mother. Mother, behold your son.”

In all of the Four Senses of Scripture, at that moment , in his last will and testament to us, He offered his mother her maternal role to all believers.

[Mr Rogers]

Jesus never even called Mary his mother. He called her “Woman”. Why? How would your mom have felt if you only called her “woman”?

Here are the verses I could find on Jesus, as an adult, speaking to or referencing Mary...

The first 3 are different accounts of the same event.

“46 While He was still talking to the multitudes, behold, His mother and brothers stood outside, seeking to speak with Him. 47 Then one said to Him, “Look, Your mother and Your brothers are standing outside, seeking to speak with You.” 48 But He answered and said to the one who told Him, “Who is My mother and who are My brothers?” 49 And He stretched out His hand toward His disciples and said, “Here are My mother and My brothers! 50 For whoever does the will of My Father in heaven is My brother and sister and mother.” - Matt 12

21 And when his family heard it, they went out to seize him, for they were saying, “He is out of his mind.”...31 Then His brothers and His mother came, and standing outside they sent to Him, calling Him. 32 And a multitude was sitting around Him; and they said to Him, “Look, Your mother and Your brothers are outside seeking You.” 33 But He answered them, saying, “Who is My mother, or My brothers?” 34 And He looked around in a circle at those who sat about Him, and said, “Here are My mother and My brothers! 35 For whoever does the will of God is My brother and My sister and mother.” - Mark 3

19 Then His mother and brothers came to Him, and could not approach Him because of the crowd. 20 And it was told Him by some, who said, “Your mother and Your brothers are standing outside, desiring to see You.” 21 But He answered and said to them, “My mother and My brothers are these who hear the word of God and do it.” - Luke 8

While I assume Jesus did eventually speak to his mother and brothers, he certainly didn’t jump up and say, “The Theotokos, she who is higher than the Cherubim, is here? Show her in, with reverence!”

One woman sought to give honor to Mary:

“While he was speaking, a woman from the crowd called out and said to him, “Blessed is the womb that carried you and the breasts at which you nursed.” He replied, “Rather, blessed are those who hear the word of God and observe it.” — Luke 11

Rather than saying, “Indeed, Blessed is She, the Theotokos, the unshakable hope, ever vigilant in intercession and protection, Mother of life!”, Jesus replies, “Rather, blessed are those who hear the word of God and observe it.” The NAB footnotes say, “Rather, it emphasizes (like Luke 2:35) that attentiveness to God’s word is more important than biological relationship to Jesus.”

There is the Wedding at Cana:

1 On the third day there was a wedding in Cana of Galilee, and the mother of Jesus was there. 2 Now both Jesus and His disciples were invited to the wedding.

3 And when they ran out of wine, the mother of Jesus said to Him, “They have no wine.” 4 Jesus said to her, “Woman, what does your concern have to do with Me? My hour has not yet come.” 5 His mother said to the servants, “Whatever He says to you, do it.”

6 Now there were set there six waterpots of stone, according to the manner of purification of the Jews, containing twenty or thirty gallons apiece. 7 Jesus said to them, “Fill the waterpots with water.”...You have kept the good wine until now!”...12 After this He went down to Capernaum, He, His mother, His brothers, and His disciples; and they did not stay there many days. — John 2

The Catholic footnote in the NAB: “4 [4] This verse may seek to show that Jesus did not work miracles to help his family and friends, as in the apocryphal gospels. Woman: a normal, polite form of address, but unattested in reference to one’s mother. Cf also John 19:26. How does your concern affect me?: literally, “What is this to me and to you?”—a Hebrew expression of either hostility (Judges 11:12; 2 Chron 35:21; 1 Kings 17:18) or denial of common interest (Hosea 14:9; 2 Kings 3:13). Cf Mark 1:24; 5:7 used by demons to Jesus. My hour has not yet come: the translation as a question (”Has not my hour now come?”), while preferable grammatically and supported by Greek Fathers, seems unlikely from a comparison with John 7:6, 30. The “hour” is that of Jesus’ passion, death, resurrection, and ascension (John 13:1).”

And finally, we have the scene at the cross:

25 Now there stood by the cross of Jesus His mother, and His mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Clopas, and Mary Magdalene. 26 When Jesus therefore saw His mother, and the disciple whom He loved standing by, He said to His mother, “Woman, behold your son!” 27 Then He said to the disciple, “Behold your mother!” And from that hour that disciple took her to his own home. — John 19

He cares for her, even in his agony - but he doesn’t exactly exalt her, does he?

“14All these with one accord were devoting themselves to prayer, together with the women and Mary the mother of Jesus, and his brothers.” - Acts 1

[AnalogReigns]

"Proceed to worship,..." is a quote from a Pope from the 1850s. Our vocabulary has not changed THAT radically in 150 years.

As to so called "veneration" of Mary not being worship, there is the "Duck principle", an application of William of Ockham's "razor" :

If it LOOKS like a duck,

WALKS like a duck,

QUACKS like a duck,

and SMELLS like a duck,

IT'S A DUCK!!!

[Alberta's Child]

All good points. But if you look carefully at the passages in Luke's Gospel related to the Visitation of Mary by the archangel Gabriel, you'll find a few remarkable things there.

First of all, it is clear from those passages that Mary did not fully comprehend what Gabriel was saying (she was "troubled" by the conversation). Secondly, Gabriel makes a reference to two things: grace and the Third Person of the Holy Trinity (the "Holy Ghost" or the "Holy Spirit," in Luke 1:35) which are surely the earliest chronological references to these things in Scripture. In other words, God had clearly seen fit to work through the Holy Spirit to bestow a degree of sanctification upon Mary that at the time hadn't even been given to the most devout historical figures of Israel.

[AnalogReigns]

You’re right on your main point (see my post above), however it should be noted that the Greek word rendered “Woman” in John 2:4 is NOT at all abrupt or rude as it can sound in English, rather it is the most polite form, perhaps better translated “Madam” or “dear lady.” It did show a kind of formal distancing of Jesus from Mary, but also the highest respect.

I think we Protestants have sometimes reacted the opposite way from the perversion of Roman Catholic worship of Mary, in not respecting Mary enough. She is to be given the respect holy Scripture gives here, no more and no less.

[Running On Empty]

I am not able to respond at this time. I’ve just received word that a family member has sustained a serious fall and is being transported by ambulance to the hospital.

[Salvation]

The Immaculate Conception is the work of God. God doesn’t have a timeline like we do. Mary was forgiven the original sin BEFORE she was born since God and Jesus could see IN ADVANCE that she would be the mother of Jesus. thus providing a pure womb to house the Ark of the New Covenant.

You are thinking as people think — have you ever tried to think as God thinks. He could see into the future — Christ dying on the Cross — when the origianl sin of Mary was forgiven IN ADVANCE of her conception. Thus we have the Immaculate Conception.

[Salvation]

That’s a great article. Thanks for adding to the thread.

[Salvation]

**it takes away from her the ability to freely choose to obey God.**

No way.

Read Luke

“Behold, I am the handmaid of the Lord.”

It was Mary’s “YES” Mary’s choice!

[Salvation]

Did you read the scripture above? It is not unscriptural!!!

[WVKayaker]

I guess Paul didn't know... Of course, he was writing to those proud Christians in Rome...

Romans 3: 21ff- But now apart from the law the righteousness of God has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify. 22 This righteousness is given through faith in[h] Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference between Jew and Gentile, 23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 and all are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus. 25 God presented Christ as a sacrifice of atonement,[i] through the shedding of his blood—to be received by faith. He did this to demonstrate his righteousness, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished— 26 he did it to demonstrate his righteousness at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus.

[Salvation]

LOL! A let us reason website.

How are you going to reason with Christ at the moment of your death that you did not accept the Immaculate Conception of his Mother?

God is perfect mercy while you are alive and perfect justice the MOMENT you die.

[Salvation]

**because it’s not true...**

How do you know?

[grey_whiskers]

Yikes.

Belated prayers UP!