Posted on 06/10/2008 10:10:18 AM PDT by dangus
>> You [Diego] say[s]: This is very confusing to some.... <<
It’s not confusing to me; it’s pure fiction.
This can be a little confusing for those who equate Jewish traditions concerning the holy days with biblical evidence.
The bible draws a difference between "Passover" and "the days of unleavened bread".
Lev 23:5 In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD's passover.
Indeed Passover, Nisan 14, is NOT a sabbath biblically speaking.
Lev 23:6 And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread.
Lev 23:7 In the first day ye shall have a holy convocation: ye shall do no servile work therein.
But the first day of unleavened bread IS.
Christ died on Passover, which is not a sabbath. But the first day of unleavened bread IS a high holy day.
The confusion comes about because most Jews today consider "passover" and the days of unleavened bread to be synonomous and that they begin NOT on Nisan 14, as the bible says, but Nisan 15, the first days of unleavened bread.
For example, Judaism 101 says about Passover:
"Pesach begins on the 15th day of the Jewish month of Nissan. "
Now clearly the bible says passover IS on Nissan 14. So Jewish tradition shouldn't be the benchmark of how holy days are observed.
The Chronology of the Crucifixion and Resurrection
Tuesday
Jesus Christ ate an evening Passover meal with His disciples and instituted the New Covenant symbols (Matthew 26:26-28). Jesus was then betrayed by Judas, arrested and during the night brought before the high priest.
Wednesday
Jesus died around 3 p.m. (Matthew 27:46-50). This was the preparation day for the annual, not weekly, Sabbath, which began at sunset (Mark 15:42; Luke 23:54; John 19:31). Jesus' body was placed in the tomb just before sunset (Matthew 27:57-60).
Thursday
This was the high-day Sabbath, the first day of Unleavened Bread (John 19:31; Leviticus 23:4-7). It is described as the day after the "Day of Preparation" (Matthew 27:62).
Friday
The high-day Sabbath now past, the women bought and prepared spices for anointing Jesus' body before resting on the weekly Sabbath day, which began at Friday sunset (Mark 16:1; Luke 23:56).
Saturday
The women rested on the weekly Sabbath, according to the Fourth Commandment (Luke 23:56; Exodus 20:8-11). Jesus rose near sunset, exactly three days and three nights after burial, fulfilling the sign of Jonah and authenticating the sign He gave of His messiahship.
Sunday
The women brought the spices early in the morning while it was still dark (Luke 24:1; John 20:1), finding that Jesus had already risen (Matthew 28:1-6; Mark 16:2-6; Luke 24:2-3; John 20:1). He did not rise on Sunday morning, but near sunset the day before.
Would you PLEASE supply any evidence to back up your assertion that the Feast of Unleavened Bread is a Sabbath?
Your chronology isn’t hard to understand at all; It’s just difficult to belive. For starters, that the body of Christ would have been unattended for four days is beyond prepostrous.
Here’s the chronology:
3:00 Thursday: the lamb, signifying Christ, is killed for Jesus’ passover meal with his disciples.
Thursday evening: Christ shares his passover meal with his disciples, and is arrested, tried by the Sanhedrin, and imprisoned.
3:00 Friday: Christ dies on the Cross. He is removed, and entombed in the cave.
Saturday: Christ’s followers rest for the Sabbath
Sunday Morning (c. 6 AM): Christ’s followers discover he has risen.
In AD 33, there was a lunar (blood) eclipse rising at 3:00, Jerusalem time. This was the final year of Pilate’s reign. Passover coincided that year with the Sabbath.
Jesus was thus both raised from the dead three days and three nights after his life was forfeit, and, paradoxically, resurrected on the third day after he was killed by the Jews.
Well, you found a good source for the fact that the Jews celebrate the Passover on the 15th, following the tradition of the Sanhedrin, but that there was biblical reason for Christ having his passover a day earlier, on the 14th.
But here’s the thing: You still haven’t shown where the bible calls the Feast of the Unleavened Bread a Sabbath. And even if it were, that would only make it more unbelievable that an event which happened on a Saturday AFTER such a Sabbath would be said to have happened “on the first of the Sabbaths.”
You may say to yourself “a holy convocation with no labor... isn’t that a Sabbath?” You’d be wrong. Sabbath comes from the Jewish word, Shabot. The word for “Seven” is Shabiyiy. The Sabbath is the seventh day. Hence, the SEVENTH day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread is a Sabbath. The first day is not. Notice the word, “shabbath” (”rest”) isn’t used to describe the lack of labor, lest the Shabbath be confused with a Shabot. (Yes, the words are related.)
Consider this language, used in Leviticus, after establishing these feast days (also including Penteocost, Rosh Hashannah, Yom Kippur, etc:)
“These the feasts of the LORD, which ye shall proclaim holy convocations [Miqra] , to offer an offering made by fire unto the LORD, a burnt offering, and a meat offering, a sacrifice, and drink offerings, every thing upon his day:
beside the sabbaths of the LORD, and beside your gifts, and beside all your vows, and beside all your freewill offerings, which ye give unto the LORD”
See, these days are called “Miqra,” and they are to be given to the Lord BESIDES the Sabbaths, gifts, vows, etc.
>> Christ died on Passover, which is not a sabbath. But the first day of unleavened bread IS a high holy day. <<
No, the lamb is slaughtered the day BEFORE Passover. The ambiguity of Leviticus (the Jews take Lev 23:5 to mean that the Passover starts at the evening of the 14th) permitted Christ to have himself sacrificed as the Paschal lamb AFTER sharing the passover meal with his disciples.
First of all you're correct. The first day of unleavened bread is never technically called a "sabbath" in Leviticus 23. It is, as you've pointed out, a commanded day of worship and a day of no servile work. However, other holy days (atonement, trumpets) are specifically called sabbaths. By nt times (apparently) the other feast days have come to be called annual sabbaths, or high sabbaths, to distinguish them from the weekly sabbaths.
Joh 19:14 And it was the preparation of the passover, and about the sixth hour: and he saith unto the Jews, Behold your King!
Joh 19:31 The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day, (for that sabbath day was a high day,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away.
But I'm not sure what the point is in drawing the distinction?
And even if it were, that would only make it more unbelievable that an event which happened on a Saturday AFTER such a Sabbath would be said to have happened “on the first of the Sabbaths.”
As Diego pointed out (I believe) "first of the sabbaths" refers to the count of 7 sabbaths (or 7 weeks of sabbaths) used to determine Pentecost. To be fair, those who observe God's holy days DO have a difference of opinion on when to start this count and thus disagree on when to observe Pentecost. But THAT'S a thread all by itself. :-)
The main problem with this scenario is that if true, Jesus wasn't the messiah.
Mat 12:39 But he answered and said unto them, An evil and adulterous generation seeketh after a sign; and there shall no sign be given to it, but the sign of the prophet Jonah:
Mat 12:40 For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.
The only sign that Jesus gave was how long he would be in the grave. He would be in the grave the same amount of time that Jonah was in the fish. Three days and three nights. Jesus going into the grave on Friday afternoon and coming out of the grave before sunrise on Sunday does in no way, shape or form come close to 3 days AND 3 nights.
>> As Diego pointed out (I believe) “first of the sabbaths” refers to the count of 7 sabbaths (or 7 weeks of sabbaths) used to determine Pentecost. <<
And I was asking for evidence of this assertion. I’ve gotten none
>> But I’m not sure what the point is in drawing the distinction? <<
Because, otherwise, the “day before the Sabbath” means Friday. And “after the Sabbath had passed” means Sunday.
>> By nt times (apparently) the other feast days have come to be called annual sabbaths, or high sabbaths, to distinguish them from the weekly sabbaths. <<
So says you. Where’s the support?
>> We’ve already been down this road. See post 65. So why do you bring it up again, pretending that it doesn’t exist? Do you see the word “ebdomav”, meaning weeks in Greek, in any Greek Bible of the NT? If and when you find it, let me know. I’m not going to hold my breath. <<
Because amidst your doznes of citations of the word “ebdoma,” I didn’t ONCE see anything to do with demonstrating the use of “first of the Sabbaths’” has anything to do with seven weeks of penetcosts, that’s why. Did YOU not read MY post #75?
>> If the word Sabbath means the 7 weeks as you say, <<
>> My King James says Luke 6:1,2 “… second sabbath after the first … plucked …corn …. Not lawful to do on the sabbath days?” <<
What I SAID was that “mia ton sabbatOn” means “the Sabbaths’ first.” I also said that “Ebdomas” means a group of seven, so it is often used to translate “Shabywa,” meaning “sevens” in the Old Testament.
The greek text of Luke 6:1,2 reads, “egeveto (happened) de (now) en (on) sabbato (sabbath) diaporeysthai (passing or ending)”
I have no idea why the King James translation says what it does, other than they interpreted the “dia-” to mean “second.” There certainly is nothing meaning anything “after the first.” And if the King James version took “dia” to mean “second,” they made an inconceivable mistake. “Poreysthai” means “going”. “Diaporeysthai” means “passing.” Nothing which can be taken to mean “second,” “first” or “after” appear in the Greek.
And the word “sabbato” is used, not “sabbatOn.”
>> The only sign that Jesus gave was how long he would be in the grave. He would be in the grave the same amount of time that Jonah was in the fish. Three days and three nights. Jesus going into the grave on Friday afternoon and coming out of the grave before sunrise on Sunday does in no way, shape or form come close to 3 days AND 3 nights. <<
We can try to guess what “in the Heart of the Earth” means. “In the tomb” would certainly be a wonderful guess... were it not contradicted twenty-something times.
Would you care to explain how your theory is reconciled with the twenty-something time Jesus says that he will be put to death, and raised on the third day? Because your theory demands that he be raised on the FOURTH day. Here’s your problem: If Christ is killed at 3:00 on day 1, the Jews would certainly say that was one day he spent dead. We don’t count that way. We might, instead say, that he was dead, oh, 0.1 days, and we’d probably round that down to zero. But nobody would call that the 0th day.
If he were put to death on Friday, SUNDAY would be the third day. The only problem is that’s three days and two nights. I acknowledge that’s a problem. Can you acknowledge, though, that it’s a problem that you have him rising on the fourth day?
I can acknowledge the problem, and suggest a possible solution: that for some reason, Thursday evening was counted as the first night, even though he wasn’t actually dead. But now I have to explain why. Turns out he offered his life as a sacrifice on Thursday. Now, if he actually said, he’d be in the grave three days, I’d say that wasn’t a good enough explanation. But he was offered as a sacrifice, and imprisoned in the earth (that’s what they did back then).
Am I satisfied with that explanation? Not really. If that were the only measure of how long Jesus would be dead, I’d have to say the simplest explanation is the best, and agree with you. But when 24 other places in the bible (not counting about a dozen prophetic foreshadows) say he rose on the third day, that simplest explanation isn’t the simplest. And then there’s that part where the bible plainly has him being killed on the day before the Sabbath, and risen on the day after the Sabbath.
[Leviticus 23:4-8] 4 These are the appointed seasons of the LORD, even holy convocations, which ye shall proclaim in their appointed season. 5 In the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month at dusk, is the LORD'S passover. 6 And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD; seven days ye shall eat unleavened bread. 7 In the first day ye shall have a holy convocation; ye shall do no manner of servile work. 8 And ye shall bring an offering made by fire unto the LORD seven days; in the seventh day is a holy convocation; ye shall do no manner of servile work. A holy convocation came to be known during the first century as a "High" Sabbath.
You can find the above scripture here.
[Matthew 27:62] Now the next day, that followed the day of the preparation, the chief priests and Pharisees came together unto Pilate. This confirms Our Lord was killed on the preparation day [Leviticus 23:5]
[Mark 15:42] < And now when the even was come, because it was the preparation, that is, the day before the sabbath Our Saviour at this point is now dead....being killed on the preparation day [II Chronicles 35:1]....the 14th.
[Mark 16:1] And when the sabbath was past, Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James, and Salome, had bought sweet spices, that they might come and anoint him. As I said in post #77, the Sabbath they are referring to is the High Sabbath of the 15th....the First Day of Unleavened Bread. When Chapters and Verses are established by man it can sometimes change the flow of the story. Between [Mark 16:1] and [Mark 16:2] there is a gap of at least two days (Nisan 16 and Nisan 17). The women observe the Sabbath.......buy the spices and in the next paragraph they prepare the spices.....and rest again on another Sabbath!
[Luke 23:53-56] 53 And he took it down, and wrapped it in linen, and laid it in a sepulchre that was hewn in stone, wherein never man before was laid. 54 And that day was the preparation (the 14th), and the sabbath drew on (the 15th). 55 And the women also, which came with him from Galilee, followed after, and beheld the sepulchre, and how his body was laid. 56 And they returned, and prepared spices and ointments; and rested the sabbath day according to the commandment. Notice that the women are now in possession of the spices and they prepare them.....but then they rest the Sabbath day according to the commandment (Sabbath # two....Friday evening/Saturday).
[John 19:14] And it was the preparation of the passover, and about the sixth hour: and he saith unto the Jews, Behold your King!
[John 19:31] The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day, (for that sabbath day was an high day,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away.
Now.....we've seen that the 15th (Wednesday evening/Thursday) was called a day of "Holy Convocation" and we've seen that the 14th (Tuesday evening/Wednesday) was the day of preparation. This was also the day of Our Lord's (the Passover) death. We've also noted that the women buy the spices after the Sabbath, the 16th (Thursday evening/Friday) and they rest again for another Sabbath on the 17th (Friday evening/Saturday). We took note of the fact that the Apostle John refers to the 15th as a "High Sabbath" and we now can confirm that the crucifixion/resurrection ordeal took a little more than three full days.....but the time Our Lord spent in the tomb was 72 hours [Matthew 12:40].
I’m gonna drop this thread now, because it’s just like beating my head on the wall.
>> Thus, we find in the Greek NT “first of the Sabbaths”. <<
Read the initial post. It doesn’t say that. It says “The Sabbaths’ first.”
>> You find it only as ebdomav in the OT. Never Shabbaton, Shabbatwn, or anything else that resembles those words. <<
Because those words are translations of Hebrew words which were alien to the Greeks in the 3rd century BC, when the Septuagint was written for Ptolemy. But again, “ebdomai” means a group of seven, not a week. So when the JEws introduced “Sabbaton,” meaning week, the Greeks picked up on it.... but only aftet they became familar with Jewsih culture. Which is why you won’t ever find the word “ebdomai” in the New Testament. But again, you don’t address the sheer ridiculousness of translating “fasting twice a sabbaton” as “fasting twice a saturday,” and you continue to make your prepostrous, unbiblical claims as to what was really meant by other passages, so I’m done with you now, after this post.
>> Luke 6:1,2 “… second sabbath after the first” they were picking corn. That’s plenty enough proof to show they counted the 7th day sabbaths during the counting or the Omer. And that they’re not weeks as you’re saying. <<
Again, you totally ignore what I’ve posted on this, and how the words “second,” “first” and “after” don’t occur in any Greek text.
>>Originality, that’s what makes the older versions valid compared to the corrupted modern day versions. <<
Only according to your baseless assertion that “sabbaton” was never used to mean “week.” Incidentally, “sabot” means Saturday.
>> Wrong again. Numbers 28:17,18 The word “Sabbath” means rest, no work. <<
Again... baseless assertion on your part. The very passage from Strongs’ you quote translated it as “week.” And note that the Jews never used the word “rest,” because that was too similar to Sabbath, and they DID NOT equate it with the Sabbath.
>> Show me where in the bible the word Shabbaowah exist in the english translation or any translation? That word does not exist. <<
DUH! It’s a JEWISH word from the JEWISH text.
>> Where does it say that in the Bible? Furthermore, the calendar proves you wrong. The holy day is the 15th and in 30 AD it was a Thursday.<<
And no scholar states for certainty that Jesus died in AD 30. In AD 33, the year that the Sabbath coincided with a lunar eclipse (blood moon), the Sabbath fell on Friday. That was also the last year of Pilate’s reign, coinciding with apocryphal texts which say he was quickly replaced by Rome after the Passion of Christ. The date 30 is a midrange estimate, from the reign of Pilate, which lasted from 26 AD to 33 AD.
>> Where does it say that in the Bible? Furthermore, the calendar proves you wrong. The holy day is the 15th and in 30 AD it was a Thursday. <<
Admittedly, it doesn’t. It’s Jewish culture. You’ll never hear a Jew call Passover the “high Sabbath,” unless it falls on a Friday-Saturday. But then, again, I don’t have to prove what “High Sabbath” means, since in many places, it is just referred to as “Sabbath.” You’re the one with the bizarre story that “Sabbath” didn’t mean “Saturday.”
>> Now.....we’ve seen that the 15th (Wednesday evening/Thursday) was called a day of “Holy Convocation” <<
Not a Sabbath... a holy convocation. The word “rest” wasn’t even used, probably because that word suggests “Sabbath.”
>> and we’ve seen that the 14th (Tuesday evening/Wednesday) was the day of preparation. <<
Yes, the day of preparation for the Sabbath. Not the convocation.
>> This was also the day of Our Lord’s (the Passover) death. <<
Uh, no. The lamb was slain just before the start of the passover. Again, you ignore everything I’ve written on this subject.
>> We’ve also noted that the women buy the spices after the Sabbath, the 16th (Thursday evening/Friday) <<
Luke says “then they returned and prepared spices and ointments. On the Sabbath, they rested.” Mark uses a funny tense, so often gets translated as if they had only bought the spices as they were bringing them to anoint Jesus, but it certainly makes clear that they brought the spices to anoint Jesus immediately after the Sabbath.
>> and they rest again for another Sabbath on the 17th (Friday evening/Saturday). <<
It’s bizarre that the word “the Sabbath” is used, then isn’t it? There’s nothing to indicate that they were suddenly talking about a different Sabbath. Only using your mistranslation do we get any sense of there being more than one Sabbath, and in that case, you allege that the first Sabbath was really the second of these alleged two Sabbaths.
But, now, I’ve made my case. People can see for themselves how you’ve failed to address my major points, and you still do. So I’m done with this thread. Case closed. You can talk to yourself all you want to.
Well the strongest evidence of course is that the greek literally says "one of the sabbaths" or "first of the sabbaths". That's indisputable. What's in dispute is how that should be translated and understood.
You, and the translators of the King James bible, apparently think it should be "first day of the week". But the greek word for day (hemera) is never used. And the neither is the greek word for "week".
As Harry pointed out, there IS a greek word for week which (transliterated) is bdomada. Every greek back then and every greek today would know and recognize that word as meaning a time period of a "week". But that word isn't used . It IS used in the LXX (the greek version of the Old Testament for those not familiar with it) and it's used WHEN week is meant...as in these verses:
Gen 29:27 Fulfill her week, and we will give thee this also for the service which thou shalt serve with me yet seven other years.
Gen 29:28 And Jacob did so, and fulfilled her week: and he gave him Rachel his daughter to wife also.
Incidentally (for those keeping score) the greek word for "week" (bdomada) is NOT used in Leviticus 23:15 and 16 in the LXX although it well could have been if weeks had been meant.
I think the evidence that this is referring to some type of sabbath other than the "first day of the week", or "Sunday" is overwhelming, at least when read literally. Throw in tradition and culture though and it's kind of difficult to take it literally.
>> But I’m not sure what the point is in drawing the distinction? << Because, otherwise, the “day before the Sabbath” means Friday. And “after the Sabbath had passed” means Sunday.
Yup, if the bible refers to holy days as sabbaths then the Friday-Sunday scenario loses a lot of steam. As pointed out, the bible does refer to some holy days as "sabbaths" so it's not unreasonable to believe that through common usage other holy days with commanded assemblies and prohibitions against work would also come to be called sabbaths.
[Leviticus 23:7] In the first day ye shall have a holy convocation; ye shall do no manner of servile work.
>> and we’ve seen that the 14th (Tuesday evening/Wednesday) was the day of preparation. << Yes, the day of preparation for the Sabbath. Not the convocation.
Yup.....the day of preparation was the 14th.
>> This was also the day of Our Lord’s (the Passover) death. << Uh, no. The lamb was slain just before the start of the passover. Again, you ignore everything I’ve written on this subject.
The problem you are having is not being able to discern Passover from the Feast of Unleavened. The entire observance was an eight day affair.....one day for prep and seven days for the Feast [Leviticus 23:4-8] 4 These are the appointed seasons of the LORD, even holy convocations, which ye shall proclaim in their appointed season. 5 In the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month at dusk, is the LORD'S passover. 6 And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD; seven days (not including Passover) ye shall eat unleavened bread. 7 In the first day ye shall have a holy convocation; ye shall do no manner of servile work. 8 And ye shall bring an offering made by fire unto the LORD seven days; in the seventh day is a holy convocation; ye shall do no manner of servile work.
In fact....sometimes folks even took two and three days to prepare for the Feast....but the Feast still lasted only seven days with a convocation on the first and a convocation on the last day. Passover, itself was the day before the Feast began! Passover was the day the lamb was slain....the 14th! [Leviticus 23:5][Numbers 9:5][Numbers 28:16][Numbers 33:3][Joshua 5:10][2 Chronicles 30:15][2 Chronicles 35:1] and [Ezra 6:19].
[ Chronicles 35:17] shows the separation of the two observances: And the children of Israel that were present kept the passover at that time, and the feast of unleavened bread seven days.
>> We’ve also noted that the women buy the spices after the Sabbath, the 16th (Thursday evening/Friday) << Luke says “then they returned and prepared spices and ointments. On the Sabbath, they rested.” Mark uses a funny tense, so often gets translated as if they had only bought the spices as they were bringing them to anoint Jesus, but it certainly makes clear that they brought the spices to anoint Jesus immediately after the Sabbath.
This is nothing but scripture twisting in an attempt to prove a false position. [Mark 16:1] clearly says they bought spices when the Sabbath was over. [Luke 23:56] clearly says they then took those spices, prepared them....and rested again for another Sabbath! Sabbath over= first day; Buy and prepare spices= second day; Rest for another Sabbath= third day! [Matthew 12:40]
It’s bizarre that the word “the Sabbath” is used, then isn’t it? There’s nothing to indicate that they were suddenly talking about a different Sabbath. Only using your mistranslation do we get any sense of there being more than one Sabbath, and in that case, you allege that the first Sabbath was really the second of these alleged two Sabbaths.
What's really bizarre is the lengths that your organization is willing to go in attempting to discredit God's Holy Sabbaths and Feast days. To move His sanctified day of worship to a day in which pagan gods enjoyed their adoration is the epitome of scripture manipulation and outright apostasy. There is nothing in the New Testament that remotely suggests this change of doctrine.....certainly no direct scripture. It's all based upon Catholic tradition. You know it. I know it and everyone reading this thread knows it!
But, now, I’ve made my case. People can see for themselves how you’ve failed to address my major points, and you still do. So I’m done with this thread. Case closed. You can talk to yourself all you want to.
You're the one who started it.....but it's understandable that you cannot finish it.
It's time spent in the tomb, not dead, as Jonah was in the whale.
1. Entombed at sunset, Wednesday. To daybreak Thursday = 1 night.
2. Thursday sunrise to sunset = 1 day, 1 night.
3. Thursday sunset to Friday sunrise = 1 day, 2 nights.
4. Friday sunrise to Friday sunset = 2 days, 2 nights.
5. Friday sunset to Saturday sunrise = 2 days, 3 nights.
6. Saturday sunrise to sunset = 3 days, 3 nights in the tomb.
He rose after being in the tomb 3 days and 3 nights as he prophesized. He rose on the 3rd day.
It was mentioned in a post by harry, but I think it got lost in the shuffle:
Luk 6:1 And it came to pass on the second sabbath after the first, that he went through the corn fields; and his disciples plucked the ears of corn, and did eat, rubbing them in their hands.
The phrase "second sabbath after the first" is unusual and commentators/historians usually disagree on it's exact meaning. But most think that it refers EITHER to the count of the sabbaths (or weeks) between unleavened bread OR to the weekly sabbath after the "sabbath" of the first day of unleavened bread.
Just more food for thought.
Snce this post actually responds to posts I’ve made, I’ll answer it (as opposed to HarrymeHome and Diego1618 who both make arguments I’ve responded to several times.):
>> He rose after being in the tomb 3 days and 3 nights as he prophesized. He rose on the 3rd day. <<
The problem with this line of reason is that the statements that Christ will rise or rose on the third day all refer to his dying, and rising on the third day. None of the twenty-something references to rising on the third day say anything about being in a tomb or being buried.
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