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To: Diego1618

>> Now.....we’ve seen that the 15th (Wednesday evening/Thursday) was called a day of “Holy Convocation” <<

Not a Sabbath... a holy convocation. The word “rest” wasn’t even used, probably because that word suggests “Sabbath.”

>> and we’ve seen that the 14th (Tuesday evening/Wednesday) was the day of preparation. <<

Yes, the day of preparation for the Sabbath. Not the convocation.

>> This was also the day of Our Lord’s (the Passover) death. <<

Uh, no. The lamb was slain just before the start of the passover. Again, you ignore everything I’ve written on this subject.

>> We’ve also noted that the women buy the spices after the Sabbath, the 16th (Thursday evening/Friday) <<

Luke says “then they returned and prepared spices and ointments. On the Sabbath, they rested.” Mark uses a funny tense, so often gets translated as if they had only bought the spices as they were bringing them to anoint Jesus, but it certainly makes clear that they brought the spices to anoint Jesus immediately after the Sabbath.

>> and they rest again for another Sabbath on the 17th (Friday evening/Saturday). <<

It’s bizarre that the word “the Sabbath” is used, then isn’t it? There’s nothing to indicate that they were suddenly talking about a different Sabbath. Only using your mistranslation do we get any sense of there being more than one Sabbath, and in that case, you allege that the first Sabbath was really the second of these alleged two Sabbaths.

But, now, I’ve made my case. People can see for themselves how you’ve failed to address my major points, and you still do. So I’m done with this thread. Case closed. You can talk to yourself all you want to.


95 posted on 06/14/2008 7:59:16 PM PDT by dangus
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To: dangus; DouglasKC; Harrymehome
>> Now.....we’ve seen that the 15th (Wednesday evening/Thursday) was called a day of “Holy Convocation” << Not a Sabbath... a holy convocation. The word “rest” wasn’t even used, probably because that word suggests “Sabbath.”

[Leviticus 23:7] In the first day ye shall have a holy convocation; ye shall do no manner of servile work.

>> and we’ve seen that the 14th (Tuesday evening/Wednesday) was the day of preparation. << Yes, the day of preparation for the Sabbath. Not the convocation.

Yup.....the day of preparation was the 14th.

>> This was also the day of Our Lord’s (the Passover) death. << Uh, no. The lamb was slain just before the start of the passover. Again, you ignore everything I’ve written on this subject.

The problem you are having is not being able to discern Passover from the Feast of Unleavened. The entire observance was an eight day affair.....one day for prep and seven days for the Feast [Leviticus 23:4-8] 4 These are the appointed seasons of the LORD, even holy convocations, which ye shall proclaim in their appointed season. 5 In the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month at dusk, is the LORD'S passover. 6 And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD; seven days (not including Passover) ye shall eat unleavened bread. 7 In the first day ye shall have a holy convocation; ye shall do no manner of servile work. 8 And ye shall bring an offering made by fire unto the LORD seven days; in the seventh day is a holy convocation; ye shall do no manner of servile work.

In fact....sometimes folks even took two and three days to prepare for the Feast....but the Feast still lasted only seven days with a convocation on the first and a convocation on the last day. Passover, itself was the day before the Feast began! Passover was the day the lamb was slain....the 14th! [Leviticus 23:5][Numbers 9:5][Numbers 28:16][Numbers 33:3][Joshua 5:10][2 Chronicles 30:15][2 Chronicles 35:1] and [Ezra 6:19].

[ Chronicles 35:17] shows the separation of the two observances: And the children of Israel that were present kept the passover at that time, and the feast of unleavened bread seven days.

>> We’ve also noted that the women buy the spices after the Sabbath, the 16th (Thursday evening/Friday) << Luke says “then they returned and prepared spices and ointments. On the Sabbath, they rested.” Mark uses a funny tense, so often gets translated as if they had only bought the spices as they were bringing them to anoint Jesus, but it certainly makes clear that they brought the spices to anoint Jesus immediately after the Sabbath.

This is nothing but scripture twisting in an attempt to prove a false position. [Mark 16:1] clearly says they bought spices when the Sabbath was over. [Luke 23:56] clearly says they then took those spices, prepared them....and rested again for another Sabbath! Sabbath over= first day; Buy and prepare spices= second day; Rest for another Sabbath= third day! [Matthew 12:40]

It’s bizarre that the word “the Sabbath” is used, then isn’t it? There’s nothing to indicate that they were suddenly talking about a different Sabbath. Only using your mistranslation do we get any sense of there being more than one Sabbath, and in that case, you allege that the first Sabbath was really the second of these alleged two Sabbaths.

What's really bizarre is the lengths that your organization is willing to go in attempting to discredit God's Holy Sabbaths and Feast days. To move His sanctified day of worship to a day in which pagan gods enjoyed their adoration is the epitome of scripture manipulation and outright apostasy. There is nothing in the New Testament that remotely suggests this change of doctrine.....certainly no direct scripture. It's all based upon Catholic tradition. You know it. I know it and everyone reading this thread knows it!

But, now, I’ve made my case. People can see for themselves how you’ve failed to address my major points, and you still do. So I’m done with this thread. Case closed. You can talk to yourself all you want to.

You're the one who started it.....but it's understandable that you cannot finish it.

97 posted on 06/14/2008 9:26:41 PM PDT by Diego1618
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To: dangus; Harrymehome; Diego1618
There is another major point of biblical evidence that shows a precedent for the first day of unleavened bread being called a "sabbath".

It was mentioned in a post by harry, but I think it got lost in the shuffle:

Luk 6:1 And it came to pass on the second sabbath after the first, that he went through the corn fields; and his disciples plucked the ears of corn, and did eat, rubbing them in their hands.

The phrase "second sabbath after the first" is unusual and commentators/historians usually disagree on it's exact meaning. But most think that it refers EITHER to the count of the sabbaths (or weeks) between unleavened bread OR to the weekly sabbath after the "sabbath" of the first day of unleavened bread.

Just more food for thought.

99 posted on 06/15/2008 8:08:48 AM PDT by DouglasKC
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