[dangus]

>> The only sign that Jesus gave was how long he would be in the grave. He would be in the grave the same amount of time that Jonah was in the fish. Three days and three nights. Jesus going into the grave on Friday afternoon and coming out of the grave before sunrise on Sunday does in no way, shape or form come close to 3 days AND 3 nights. <<

We can try to guess what “in the Heart of the Earth” means. “In the tomb” would certainly be a wonderful guess... were it not contradicted twenty-something times.

Would you care to explain how your theory is reconciled with the twenty-something time Jesus says that he will be put to death, and raised on the third day? Because your theory demands that he be raised on the FOURTH day. Here’s your problem: If Christ is killed at 3:00 on day 1, the Jews would certainly say that was one day he spent dead. We don’t count that way. We might, instead say, that he was dead, oh, 0.1 days, and we’d probably round that down to zero. But nobody would call that the 0th day.

If he were put to death on Friday, SUNDAY would be the third day. The only problem is that’s three days and two nights. I acknowledge that’s a problem. Can you acknowledge, though, that it’s a problem that you have him rising on the fourth day?

I can acknowledge the problem, and suggest a possible solution: that for some reason, Thursday evening was counted as the first night, even though he wasn’t actually dead. But now I have to explain why. Turns out he offered his life as a sacrifice on Thursday. Now, if he actually said, he’d be in the grave three days, I’d say that wasn’t a good enough explanation. But he was offered as a sacrifice, and imprisoned in the earth (that’s what they did back then).

Am I satisfied with that explanation? Not really. If that were the only measure of how long Jesus would be dead, I’d have to say the simplest explanation is the best, and agree with you. But when 24 other places in the bible (not counting about a dozen prophetic foreshadows) say he rose on the third day, that simplest explanation isn’t the simplest. And then there’s that part where the bible plainly has him being killed on the day before the Sabbath, and risen on the day after the Sabbath.

[Harrymehome]

In regards to post 75:

You say:
Harry, the OT doesn’t refer to mia ton Sabbaton OR mia ton ebdomais. The first day of the week wasn’t important to OT Jews.

I’m not saying the term “first day of the week” is in the OT. I’m referring to only the word “week” in the Greek OT and all it’s applications as compared to the word “week” in the Greek NT and all it’s applications. You find it only as ebdomav in the OT. Never Shabbaton, Shabbatwn, or anything else that resembles those words. Thus, we find in the Greek NT “first of the Sabbaths”. Not “first day of the ebdomav”. Vulgate says exactly the same as Greek OT “primam sabati”. Peshita says the same thing. All the original Bibles say that same thing.



You say:
But you’re saying that the phrase refers to a something that would’ve been divinley instituted, a part of Jewish law. So where is it? Where is the support for your assertion?

Luke 6:1,2 “… second sabbath after the first” they were picking corn. That’s plenty enough proof to show they counted the 7th day sabbaths during the counting or the Omer. And that they’re not weeks as you’re saying.

You say:
How can the day after the second Sabbath of the season be called the “first Sabbath?”

You’re confused.You can’t quote what Luke 6:1,2 says.

You say:
“what do you offer to support your translation?”

Originality, that’s what makes the older versions valid compared to the corrupted modern day versions.

You say:
But the point is that the Feast of Unleavened Bread is NOT a Sabbath.

Wrong again. Numbers 28:17,18 The word “Sabbath” means rest, no work.

You say:
the Greeks had no concept of a week Who do you think I am? Go tell that to a 5 year old. Your credibility just dropped to zilch.

Show me where in the bible the word Shabbaowah exist in the english translation or any translation? That word does not exist.

You say:
BUT, when a holy day such as Passover fell on a Sabbath, it was referred to as a “high Sabbath,” which is what the gospels refer to the passover as. So, we know for a fact that the Sabbath (as practiced by the Sanhedrin, anyway) fell on a Sabbath.

Where does it say that in the Bible? Furthermore, the calendar proves you wrong. The holy day is the 15th and in 30 AD it was a Thursday.

Blessings in your search for TRUTH

[DouglasKC]

Would you care to explain how your theory is reconciled with the twenty-something time Jesus says that he will be put to death, and raised on the third day? Because your theory demands that he be raised on the FOURTH day. Here’s your problem: If Christ is killed at 3:00 on day 1, the Jews would certainly say that was one day he spent dead.

It's time spent in the tomb, not dead, as Jonah was in the whale.

1. Entombed at sunset, Wednesday. To daybreak Thursday = 1 night.

2. Thursday sunrise to sunset = 1 day, 1 night.

3. Thursday sunset to Friday sunrise = 1 day, 2 nights.

4. Friday sunrise to Friday sunset = 2 days, 2 nights.

5. Friday sunset to Saturday sunrise = 2 days, 3 nights.

6. Saturday sunrise to sunset = 3 days, 3 nights in the tomb.

He rose after being in the tomb 3 days and 3 nights as he prophesized. He rose on the 3rd day.