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To: dangus
In regards to post 75:

You say:
Harry, the OT doesn’t refer to mia ton Sabbaton OR mia ton ebdomais. The first day of the week wasn’t important to OT Jews.

I’m not saying the term “first day of the week” is in the OT. I’m referring to only the word “week” in the Greek OT and all it’s applications as compared to the word “week” in the Greek NT and all it’s applications. You find it only as ebdomav in the OT. Never Shabbaton, Shabbatwn, or anything else that resembles those words. Thus, we find in the Greek NT “first of the Sabbaths”. Not “first day of the ebdomav”. Vulgate says exactly the same as Greek OT “primam sabati”. Peshita says the same thing. All the original Bibles say that same thing.



You say:
But you’re saying that the phrase refers to a something that would’ve been divinley instituted, a part of Jewish law. So where is it? Where is the support for your assertion?

Luke 6:1,2 “… second sabbath after the first” they were picking corn. That’s plenty enough proof to show they counted the 7th day sabbaths during the counting or the Omer. And that they’re not weeks as you’re saying.

You say:
How can the day after the second Sabbath of the season be called the “first Sabbath?”

You’re confused.You can’t quote what Luke 6:1,2 says.

You say:
“what do you offer to support your translation?”

Originality, that’s what makes the older versions valid compared to the corrupted modern day versions.

You say:
But the point is that the Feast of Unleavened Bread is NOT a Sabbath.

Wrong again. Numbers 28:17,18 The word “Sabbath” means rest, no work.

You say:
the Greeks had no concept of a week Who do you think I am? Go tell that to a 5 year old. Your credibility just dropped to zilch.

Show me where in the bible the word Shabbaowah exist in the english translation or any translation? That word does not exist.

You say:
BUT, when a holy day such as Passover fell on a Sabbath, it was referred to as a “high Sabbath,” which is what the gospels refer to the passover as. So, we know for a fact that the Sabbath (as practiced by the Sanhedrin, anyway) fell on a Sabbath.

Where does it say that in the Bible? Furthermore, the calendar proves you wrong. The holy day is the 15th and in 30 AD it was a Thursday.

Blessings in your search for TRUTH
93 posted on 06/14/2008 7:00:45 PM PDT by Harrymehome
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To: Harrymehome

I’m gonna drop this thread now, because it’s just like beating my head on the wall.

>> Thus, we find in the Greek NT “first of the Sabbaths”. <<

Read the initial post. It doesn’t say that. It says “The Sabbaths’ first.”

>> You find it only as ebdomav in the OT. Never Shabbaton, Shabbatwn, or anything else that resembles those words. <<

Because those words are translations of Hebrew words which were alien to the Greeks in the 3rd century BC, when the Septuagint was written for Ptolemy. But again, “ebdomai” means a group of seven, not a week. So when the JEws introduced “Sabbaton,” meaning week, the Greeks picked up on it.... but only aftet they became familar with Jewsih culture. Which is why you won’t ever find the word “ebdomai” in the New Testament. But again, you don’t address the sheer ridiculousness of translating “fasting twice a sabbaton” as “fasting twice a saturday,” and you continue to make your prepostrous, unbiblical claims as to what was really meant by other passages, so I’m done with you now, after this post.

>> Luke 6:1,2 “… second sabbath after the first” they were picking corn. That’s plenty enough proof to show they counted the 7th day sabbaths during the counting or the Omer. And that they’re not weeks as you’re saying. <<

Again, you totally ignore what I’ve posted on this, and how the words “second,” “first” and “after” don’t occur in any Greek text.

>>Originality, that’s what makes the older versions valid compared to the corrupted modern day versions. <<

Only according to your baseless assertion that “sabbaton” was never used to mean “week.” Incidentally, “sabot” means Saturday.

>> Wrong again. Numbers 28:17,18 The word “Sabbath” means rest, no work. <<

Again... baseless assertion on your part. The very passage from Strongs’ you quote translated it as “week.” And note that the Jews never used the word “rest,” because that was too similar to Sabbath, and they DID NOT equate it with the Sabbath.

>> Show me where in the bible the word Shabbaowah exist in the english translation or any translation? That word does not exist. <<

DUH! It’s a JEWISH word from the JEWISH text.

>> Where does it say that in the Bible? Furthermore, the calendar proves you wrong. The holy day is the 15th and in 30 AD it was a Thursday.<<

And no scholar states for certainty that Jesus died in AD 30. In AD 33, the year that the Sabbath coincided with a lunar eclipse (blood moon), the Sabbath fell on Friday. That was also the last year of Pilate’s reign, coinciding with apocryphal texts which say he was quickly replaced by Rome after the Passion of Christ. The date 30 is a midrange estimate, from the reign of Pilate, which lasted from 26 AD to 33 AD.

>> Where does it say that in the Bible? Furthermore, the calendar proves you wrong. The holy day is the 15th and in 30 AD it was a Thursday. <<

Admittedly, it doesn’t. It’s Jewish culture. You’ll never hear a Jew call Passover the “high Sabbath,” unless it falls on a Friday-Saturday. But then, again, I don’t have to prove what “High Sabbath” means, since in many places, it is just referred to as “Sabbath.” You’re the one with the bizarre story that “Sabbath” didn’t mean “Saturday.”


94 posted on 06/14/2008 7:40:12 PM PDT by dangus
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