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To: DouglasKC

>> As Diego pointed out (I believe) “first of the sabbaths” refers to the count of 7 sabbaths (or 7 weeks of sabbaths) used to determine Pentecost. <<

And I was asking for evidence of this assertion. I’ve gotten none

>> But I’m not sure what the point is in drawing the distinction? <<

Because, otherwise, the “day before the Sabbath” means Friday. And “after the Sabbath had passed” means Sunday.

>> By nt times (apparently) the other feast days have come to be called annual sabbaths, or high sabbaths, to distinguish them from the weekly sabbaths. <<

So says you. Where’s the support?


88 posted on 06/14/2008 1:28:48 PM PDT by dangus
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To: dangus; vpintheak; jkl1122; woollyone; Salvation; Diego1618; DouglasKC
Dangus, you say:
As Diego pointed out (I believe) “first of the sabbaths” refers to the count of 7 sabbaths (or 7 weeks of sabbaths) used to determine Pentecost.

We’ve already been down this road. See post 65. So why do you bring it up again, pretending that it doesn’t exist? Do you see the word “ebdomav”, meaning weeks in Greek, in any Greek Bible of the NT? If and when you find it, let me know. I’m not going to hold my breath.

My King James says Luke 6:1,2 “… second sabbath after the first … plucked …corn …. Not lawful to do on the sabbath days?”

If the word Sabbath means the 7 weeks as you say, then it would be “not lawful” to break corn for 7 straight weeks or 49 days. How ridiculous that sounds. Get a grip.

Blessings in your search for TRUTH.
89 posted on 06/14/2008 3:20:52 PM PDT by Harrymehome
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To: dangus; Harrymehome; Diego1618
>> As Diego pointed out (I believe) “first of the sabbaths” refers to the count of 7 sabbaths (or 7 weeks of sabbaths) used to determine Pentecost. <<
And I was asking for evidence of this assertion. I’ve gotten none

Well the strongest evidence of course is that the greek literally says "one of the sabbaths" or "first of the sabbaths". That's indisputable. What's in dispute is how that should be translated and understood.

You, and the translators of the King James bible, apparently think it should be "first day of the week". But the greek word for day (hemera) is never used. And the neither is the greek word for "week".

As Harry pointed out, there IS a greek word for week which (transliterated) is bdomada. Every greek back then and every greek today would know and recognize that word as meaning a time period of a "week". But that word isn't used . It IS used in the LXX (the greek version of the Old Testament for those not familiar with it) and it's used WHEN week is meant...as in these verses:

Gen 29:27 Fulfill her week, and we will give thee this also for the service which thou shalt serve with me yet seven other years.
Gen 29:28 And Jacob did so, and fulfilled her week: and he gave him Rachel his daughter to wife also.

Incidentally (for those keeping score) the greek word for "week" (bdomada) is NOT used in Leviticus 23:15 and 16 in the LXX although it well could have been if weeks had been meant.

I think the evidence that this is referring to some type of sabbath other than the "first day of the week", or "Sunday" is overwhelming, at least when read literally. Throw in tradition and culture though and it's kind of difficult to take it literally.

>> But I’m not sure what the point is in drawing the distinction? << Because, otherwise, the “day before the Sabbath” means Friday. And “after the Sabbath had passed” means Sunday.

Yup, if the bible refers to holy days as sabbaths then the Friday-Sunday scenario loses a lot of steam. As pointed out, the bible does refer to some holy days as "sabbaths" so it's not unreasonable to believe that through common usage other holy days with commanded assemblies and prohibitions against work would also come to be called sabbaths.

96 posted on 06/14/2008 9:19:00 PM PDT by DouglasKC
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