Posted on 10/27/2006 8:14:39 PM PDT by Salvation
St. Peter and Rome |
11/15/04 |
Act 28:23 And when they had appointed him a day, there came many to him into his lodging; to whom he expounded and testified the kingdom of God, persuading them concerning Jesus, both out of the law of Moses, and out of the prophets, from morning till evening.
Act 28:24 And some believed the things which were spoken, and some believed not.
If Peter was in Rome, Paul then was building on another man's ministry, contrary to the bible and Roman theology...
So are you saying that Peter and Paul worked against each other?
I don't think so!!
Act 20:28 Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood.
And who ordained the overseers??? Was it Peter??? Nope...How about Paul??? Nope...It was the Holy Ghost...
Was 'feed the flock' a special admonition given to only Peter??? Of course not...
And what was the food that was to be fed???
Nope...I'm saying Peter wasn't there...And the bible hints at that as well...
You have the testimony of Ireneaus and Tertullian. Absent evidence to the contrary, that should be enough. Besides, this is as unexceptional as asserting that a Frenchman might go to live in Paris. Rome was a magnet drawing people from all over the world and had a large Jewish population.
Please tell me the chapter and verse where the Bible "hints" at that.
Paul had several journeys to Rome and Irenaeus seems to suggest that Peter had at least one. But Irenaeus does not make Peter the Pope of Rome nor does he say that Peter stay around to oversee it. On the contrary, he says he left. I find Catholic writings often leave out these important facts in Irenaeus' writings. Later writings is nothing more than speculation.
The charge to Peter in the last chapter of John was self-evidently given to St. Peter alone.
References to consecration and ordination are numerous in the epistles and the Acts.
The food was primarily the Eucharist, which, Christ taught, was "food indeed". Nothing prevents us to understand is expansively as the entire teaching of the Church. This is how Peter himself understands it in 2 Peter -- as the deposit of faith he received firsthand.
There is no mutual exclusivity between St. Paul and St. Peter. Whatever St. Paul did, even if arguing with St. Peter, he did because St. Peter and St. James, "the pillars" authorized him.
It is a bit late. If you are not sure of the verses I am referring to, I will give you references tomorrow.
No, Peter did not "rule" the Church from Rome. What he and Paul did was to lend their authority to the see of Rome, especially since each man was martyred there. As a result the capital city of the empire became the main focal point of the Church, especially after the destruction of Jerusalem.
Paul received his authority from Peter and James. He was sent to the Gentiles, but Peter had the universal order to wield the keys and "feed the lambs".
Come on Harley, let's not let facts get in the way of current tradition! ;-)
The decision was already made at the Jerusalem council to let go of the dietetic law. That was done under St. Peter's leadership who had the vision (Acts 10) about it. St. Paul objected to Peter's personal behavior, but as we know from Scripture, it was Peter who initiated the reform. This was a doctrine that came from Peter and possibly John and James (Gal 1:9f, 2:1), so Paul could not be making a doctrinal point when he made his remark to Peter in Galatians 2:11f.
Peter was not called to the Jews in any exclusive sense -- it was Peter who opened the Chruch to the Gentiles (Acts 10) and converted the first Gentile (Acts 11).
The only way Peter could have founded the church at Rome was if he had appointed/commissioned the first leader of the church and sent him there. Paul wrote to the Romans and makes no mention of Peter's being there which is odd since he names so many others.
By the time Peter finally got to Rome, which I believe he did, and wrote a letter from there with the code word "Babylon" (I don't think he was literally at the ancient Babylon), someone else had already been leading the church; it could have been informally organized by early lay people, like I believe many others probably were in the earliest times, the leaders may have been "ordained" by the laying on of hands by one of the apostles.
That is not to say he couldn't have been the first pope, but I'm not fully convinced he was. It doesn't take many years for historians to get wrong information recorded that was handed down by word of mouth, and sadly, I think some writings were later altered to give more substance to claims.
I've read all the claims; none are totaly convincing one way or another.
I would direct you to the end of the Gospel of John, the Acts of the Apostles and the Letter of Peter. Then again, maybe those aren't the "proper sources" for your not hearing much about him.
Gosh, maybe for the partial answer to these questions you should consult the great Eusebius in Church History; Book III; Ch22:
"At this time, Ignatius was known as the 2nd bishop of Antioch, Euodius having been the first. Symeon likewise was at that time the 2nd ruler of the Church of Jerusalem, the brother of our Saviour having been the first."
Golly gee, I wonder who that could have been? Hmmmm.Try Galatians 1:19: "But other of the apostles saw I none, except James, the Lord's brother". Yes, James, one of Jesus's four brothers, son of Mary [Mt 13:55]. There goes your postulation and that legend of perpetual virginity in one fell swoop.
Paul in Galatians describes his meeting with the three pillars of the Church in Jerusalem: James[bishop? maybe], Cephas [Peter the Apostle], and John [the Apostle?]. Is that 2 Apostles and a Bishop? We take your Queen.
Not only do you guys not believe the Holy Scriptures but you don't even believe your own Ante-Nicene Fathers. Where do you get these great pontifications? Maybe you should meditate on the great Catholic scholar F.A. Sullivan who explained in From Apostles to Bishops, that apostles were not bishops and bishops not apostles, and that the Church in Rome until atleast the middle of the 2nd century was run by a college of presbyters. Yes, my dear deceived brethren, the first church in Rome was Presbyterian. And you have the audacity to call them "separated brethren". You all should return to the First Presbyterian Church of Rome, the church of your fathers, and quit this nonsense
It's interesting to me how this conversation draws arguments about Peter's postion and authority and against the R.C. Church. That just clouds the question, UNLESS the argument is in essence ad hominem [that's meant to be a descriptive, not an evaluative, phrase] and goes something like "The R.C. Church is full of lying, neurotic, superstitious fools, and has been since the time of Ireneaus and Tertullian. Consequently their evidence is of no weight."
I think the argument could be plausibly offered with respect to Tertullian. Anybody who could write as wittily as he did about "'Christians to the Lion' What? So many to one lion?", cannot be all bad, IMHO. But I know of no a priori reason to think that Ireneaus was incredible.
So we have one credible early witness to an even earlier "common knowledge" that Peter was in Rome. What is there in the "against" column except the strong desire of some that it not be true, so that every possible suggestion that the RC Church might somehow be the Church in its fullest can be discredited?
But as I and others far more worthy and important than I have said, the question of where Peter was is a different question from what his vocation was and what the Church is.
"Speculating on this matter". There is no speculating in the Church of Rome, because once the "Holy Fathers" have spoken, the matter is settled, there is no more debate. And this matter is settled history. Both Jerome and Eusebius put it to bed. Jerome clearly writes: "Simon Peter . . . pushed on to Rome in the second year of Claudius to overthrow Simon Magus."
What is there left to "speculate" about. Holy Father Jerome says that Simon Peter went there not to preach the Gospel but in order to overthrow Simon Magus [Simon the Magician]. Was Saint Jerome mistaken? Surely the Holy Fathers are never wrong.
Hey, has anybody over here seen or heard from Adiaireton8?. I'm worried about him. Is he Okay????
I can see where it was probably given to Peter 'first', but not alone...That is evident...
The food was primarily the Eucharist, which, Christ taught, was "food indeed". Nothing prevents us to understand is expansively as the entire teaching of the Church. This is how Peter himself understands it in 2 Peter -- as the deposit of faith he received firsthand.
Act 20:32 And now, brethren, I commend you to God, and to the word of his grace, which is able to build you up, and to give you an inheritance among all them which are sanctified.
I would say the food is the word of God...It builds you up as well as provides for the inheritance, because it contains the Truth for your salvation...
1Pe 2:2 As newborn babes, desire the sincere milk of the word, that ye may grow thereby:
Heb 5:12 For when for the time ye ought to be teachers, ye have need that one teach you again which be the first principles of the oracles of God; and are become such as have need of milk, and not of strong meat.
There is no mutual exclusivity between St. Paul and St. Peter. Whatever St. Paul did, even if arguing with St. Peter, he did because St. Peter and St. James, "the pillars" authorized him.
I can't imagine where you got that opinion...It certainly didn't come from the bible...
Gal 2:8 (For he that wrought effectually in Peter to the apostleship of the circumcision, the same was mighty in me toward the Gentiles:)
Paul, at the very least, was on equal footing with Peter...
My church, your church and every other Christian church in the U.S. fall under the scope of the ministry of the apostle Paul, not Peter...We are the Gentile church...
Gal 2:9 And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen, and they unto the circumcision.
There is NOTHING in the verse you refer to that puts James, John and Peter above Paul...They didn't give him the hand of permission, they gave him the hand of fellowship...
You think that if the three would have disapproved that Paul would have halted his ministry to the Gentiles, which God commanded him to do??? I think not...
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