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To: annalex
Is that why Paul had to confront Peter about his hypocrisy? Is that why God had to give peter a vision about the unclean becoming clean? The gentiles were infidels in the eyes of Peter until God gave him the vision. Paul was called to the gentiles while peter was called to the Jews.
32 posted on 10/28/2006 1:21:22 AM PDT by John 6.66=Mark of the Beast?
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To: John 6.66=Mark of the Beast?

The decision was already made at the Jerusalem council to let go of the dietetic law. That was done under St. Peter's leadership who had the vision (Acts 10) about it. St. Paul objected to Peter's personal behavior, but as we know from Scripture, it was Peter who initiated the reform. This was a doctrine that came from Peter and possibly John and James (Gal 1:9f, 2:1), so Paul could not be making a doctrinal point when he made his remark to Peter in Galatians 2:11f.

Peter was not called to the Jews in any exclusive sense -- it was Peter who opened the Chruch to the Gentiles (Acts 10) and converted the first Gentile (Acts 11).


33 posted on 10/28/2006 1:52:39 AM PDT by annalex
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