Posted on 09/06/2021 3:46:53 PM PDT by Grandpa Drudge
(Natural News) Researchers from Germany have conducted the world’s first-ever postmortem study on a corpse that prior to death had been “vaccinated” for the Wuhan coronavirus (Covid-19). They found that every single organ of the now-deceased person’s body had become infested with spike proteins due to the jab.
About one month prior to his death, the 86-year-old man had received his first dose of a Fauci Flu shot. He later became infected with Chinese Germs and had to be rushed to a nearby hospital for treatment.
It was already too late, though. The man’s body was overtaken by Trump Vaccine spike proteins that ate up his vital organs and left him for dead. According to reports, the man had received a “lipid nanoparticle-formulated, nucleoside-modified RNA vaccine BNT162b2 in a 30 ?g dose.”
“On that day and in the following 2 weeks, he presented with no clinical symptoms,” reads a paper about the case that was published in the International Journal of Infectious Diseases.
“On day 18, he was admitted to hospital for worsening diarrhea. Since he did not present with any clinical signs of COVID-19, isolation in a specific setting did not occur. Laboratory testing revealed hypochromic anemia and increased creatinine serum levels. Antigen test and polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for SARS-CoV-2 were negative.” By day 25, the man finally tested “positive” for Chinese Germs
It took all the way until day 25 for the man to finally test “positive” for the Fauci Flu. Just one day later, he died in the hospital of kidney and respiratory failure caused by the vaccine.
Researchers later found that the patient’s entire body had become overrun with high viral RNA loads, also known as vaccine-induced spike proteins. The man was clearly killed by the jab.
I’m not sure if he died from the fauci flu shot, the Trump vaccine or the chinese germs. The author isn’t very clear with all the mudslinging. but he did leave out the colonoscopy and the infected roomie.
thanks. I don’t see anything that remotely backs up the claims made by the headline:
Day 1, first shot;
Day 15, collapses at breakfast with gastritis, no treatment.
Day 18, admitted to hospital and gastroscopy.
Day 19, abnormal ultrasound;
Day 20 colonoscopy (general anethesia?) with colonic ulcer found.
Day 23, acute renal insufficiency and, lung sounds and ‘any pathological’(?), and sodium deficiency.
Day 24, sodium imbalance continues, Roomie tests positive.
Day 25 lung infiltrates/crackles, lethargic/drowsy, and PCR tested for high viral load. ceftriaxone and o2 given.
Day 26, patient dies from bacterial pneumonia (related to Day 20??) and renal failure
Givens:
cidrap reports that in mid Dec, pfitzer was at about 50% protection between shots
https://www.cidrap.umn.edu/news-perspective/2020/12/fda-documents-show-pfizer-covid-vaccine-protects-after-1-dose
On further analysis of the swab sample, there was no evidence for mutant SARS-CoV-2 variants B.1.1.7, B.1.351 or B.1.1.28.1.
Taken together, it appears the patient became infected from the patient in his hospital room.
Because our patient died approximately 2 days after his first positive SARS-CoV-2 test result, we suppose that the molecular mapping data reflects an early stage of viral infection. An early stage of infection might also explain why different regions such as the olfactory bulb and liver were not (yet) affected by systemic viral spread.
‘we identified extensive acute bronchopneumonia, possibly of bacterial origin. We concluded that the patient died from bronchopneumonia and acute renal failure.
Our findings are in line with previous evidence from animal models that immunization against SARS-CoV-2 by vaccination appeared to reduce the severity of pathogenesis, especially with regard to severe lung disease, while viral RNA persisted in nasal swabs
the results of our autopsy case study in a patient with mRNA vaccine confirm the view that by first dose of vaccination against SARS-CoV-2 immunogenicity can already be induced, while sterile immunity is not adequately developed.
Some things are clear, however, and in spite of multiple statements to the contrary, one of them is that he was NOT infected with the natural SARS-CoV-2 virus.That is precisely stated in the autopsy, although many people seem to not understand the statements clearly.
Another equally clear indication is that he WAS "afflicted" (I choose to not call this "infected") with a SARS-CoV-2 (spike protein only) spike(S1) protein, which is what the mRNA vaccine does. That is precisely what the Covid-19 vaccine is designed to do, and it did it for this man. But it is a vaccine, and NOT the natural SARS-CoV-2 virus (Covid-19)
Finally, since he was never infected with the natural SARS-CoV-2 virus (Covid-19), as determined in the autopsy, it is not possible that the death was caused by covid-19 (SARS-CoV-2 virus).
In my discussion I have never claimed or stated that the vaccine killed him. That came from the newspaper article, and I have never even defended that. However it is well known that the mRNA vaccines have a risk of Antibody-Dependent Enhancement (ADE), and the fact that he had recently been vaccinated with the Covid-19 spike(S1) protein, it is certainly possible that ADE from this vaccine contributed to his death.
For more information about ADE and Covid-19 mRNA vaccines, see
I don’t have a link to data of the trial results readily available for novavax other than remembering its efficacy being equal to the other “vaccines”.
What is different about novavax is that it DOESNT cause the body to make the spike protein. It uses inert pieces of the spike protein (subunits/nanoparticles) as the cause of our bodies antigen formation and uses tree bark to draw the bodies immune system to the injection site.
This is the way many traditional vaccines work.unlike the COVID MRNA ones. The j&j one worked with an adenovirus vector but it still causes the spike proteins to be made which is what I want to a sound since the spike proteins are what causes the coagulopathy with COVID
At day 18 he had no IgM, and was antigen and PCR negative. By day 15-21, the vaccine RNA, like all rna’s, would have degraded. (If the vaccine was able to drive the body’s rna to produce unlimited spikeprotein forever, you’d never need a second shot.) Live virus was confirmed by “ 2 independent genes”, “ RNA-dependent RNA polymerase (Target 1) (which Remdisivir goes after) and nucleopeptide (Target 2)”. That is, live virus has elements not a part of the single protein elicited by the vaccine.
The subject was tested for three variants: B.1.1.28/P2 (UK/Brazil) as well as delta and Wild wuhan. If these were not false negatives, the next question would be, what strain was the roomie positive for since we know for sure he was infected? What variants were floating around the hospital itself?
Diving into the organs, no recent damage other than bacterial infection with abcess in lungs (s. aureus?) (HRSA from intubation/colonoscopy?), chronic kidney damage, old infarction of the brain (prior stroke?), heart amyloidosis with history (p. Olfactory and liver clear). I don’t think ADE was in play, not enough time between roomie infection and expiring.
He had live virus in his organs not vaccine spike. I still say he died ‘with’ covid, not ‘of’ covid and not of a vaccine. but that’s just my read.
If I did not know any better, I would swear they are trying to kill us............................
Name calling school girl. Does the date change the fact Nancy?
Thanx much, will go a searchin’ on the www.
“Interesting that they call it “Trump vaccine” in Germany....”
Do you think that all of the communist East-Germans suddenly died off just as soon as the ussr collapsed?
There are STILL many hardcore communists in all of the former ussr slave-states. That is particularly true in Germany.
I note that he was AGAIN tested on day 20 (PCR test) for the live virus, again negative.
These facts are specifically and unambiguously presented in table 1 of the autopsy report.
Also, your assertions about "the vaccine RNA" and "Live virus was confirmed by “2 independent genes”" don't make any sense to me, and you don't point to any supporting documentation for them.
Your conclusion that "He had live virus in his organs not vaccine spike." is directly opposite from the clear evidence presented in this autopsy.
And that's my read.
I submit the observation that the majority of our public propaganda leads toward:
"Covid-19 is extremely dangerous"
(For healthy people I think it's not. Its danger is roughly comparable to influenza.)
"The current mRNA vaccines do not prevent infection from Covid-19, therefore continuing mask mandates are justified"
(I think only first half is true, because scientific studies strongly indicate that masks are ineffective at inhibiting virus transmission.)
"Even though the current mRNA vaccines do not ALWAYS prevent infection from Covid-19, they DO reduce severity of infection from Covid-19, therefore vaccine mandates are justified"
(I simply reject this position, because all of the "scientific" reports I have seen so far regarding reduced severity of infection are just "psuedo science" speculation and opinion, probably politically motivated.)
"Serious adverse reactions to the current mRNA vaccines are extremely rare, and current vaccine mandates are justifiable"
I simply reject this position. The autopsy discussed in this thread is an apparent serious adverse reaction to the vaccine itself, and clearly NOT a reaction to the virus.
. On day 24, a patient in the same hospital room as our case tested positive for SARS-CoV-2. On day 25, our patient tested SARS-CoV-2 positive by real-time PCR (RT-PCR), with a low cycle threshold (Ct) value indicating high virus load. On further analysis of the swab sample, there was no evidence for mutant SARS-CoV-2 variants B.1.1.7, B.1.351 or B.1.1.28.1. Taken together, it appears the patient became infected from the patient in his hospital room. Our patient now presented with fever and respiratory discomfort, and lung auscultation displayed crackles. Despite starting supplemental oxygen (2 l per minute) and antibiotic therapy by ceftriaxone, the patient died from acute renal and respiratory failure on the following day.
Bkmk
It has nothing to do with my post.
From the article…
“On day 25, our patient tested SARS-CoV-2 positive by real-time PCR (RT-PCR), with a low cycle threshold (Ct) value indicating high virus load.”
I’m not picking and choosing. I’m reading for content.
Oh yeah?
Looks to me like you DID choose and highlight that particular content. I assume that choice was selected to promote the impression that his death was actually caused in some way by the Covid-19 virus, in spite of all the evidence in this autopsy that it was not.
I wonder why...
Yes, that's exactly what was in the autopsy, and it's exactly what I reported was in the autopsy.
And it was 25 days after the man was vaccinated, 10 days after he became critically ill, 7 days after his first negative test (no virus) 5 days after his second negative test (no virus) and exactly one day before the man died.
It's pretty unlikely that the virus he contracted 1 day before his death was the cause of his death. It just doesn't work that fast, especially if the current claimed benefit of the vaccine (which he had from 24 days earlier) is lessening of the danger from the actual virus
Your original post stated:
“They found that every single organ of the now-deceased person’s body had become infested with spike proteins due to the jab.”
I noted from the article that he tested positive for COVID before he died. Didn’t say he died from COVID - don’t assume. Died with COVID seems likely based on the positive test.the day before he died. That isn’t the same as died from COVID.
The previous posts noted that certain data did not elucidate info related to identifying vaccine v wild antibodies - so there isn’t data there.
And finally, since you think I’m picking and choosing - why does the original post you provided state:
“They found that every single organ of the now-deceased person’s body had become infested with spike proteins due to the jab.”
While the actual article notes:
“except for the liver and olfactory bulb. These results might suggest that the first vaccination induces immunogenicity but not sterile immunity.”
Those exceptions noted in the article are organs, so the statement that every single organ in your original post is at best poor reading comprehension skills,
So to recap - I’m not picking and choosing like you, I’m reading for content.
There is no dispute that "He died "with" Covid-19", and I have never even implied that.
I stand by all my comments, which are focused on the autopsy itself, rather than attention grabbing phraseology in the article. Specifically, re-read my posts # 111 and # 112 above, which summarize the issues raised with this autopsy.
This is the only one I have been able to find, and this one was done in Germany.
Either the US CDC is not doing its job, or they are hiding this from us for some reason. I suspect the latter.
Has anyone asked Dr. Anthony Fauci this question?
The WSJ editorial board has published an absolute falsehood regarding the susceptibility of COVID-recovered and immune Americans to subsequent infection. This letter demanding a correction or retraction was sent to the editorial board and a few prominent WSJ reporters.
https://www.wsj.com/articles/covid-delta-variant-market-dow-industrial-700-points-11626731103?mod=hp_opin_pos_1
Specifically, your colleagues are stating the following falsehood:
“Previously infected individuals appear to be more susceptible to re-infection by the Delta variant, which could explain some of the rising cases.”
This WSJ editorial statement is a dangerous lie, with NO basis in either current scientific epidemiological data or the fundamentals of immunology.
To the contrary, the the bulk of studies on the topic of “re-infection” in the COVID-recovered, are demonstrating that individuals who are COVID-recovered and have thus acquired Antibody and T-cell immunity to SARS-CoV-2, are equally if not better protected from subsequent infection as compared to the vaccinated. Though I am cognizant this fact ought NOT be abused as an argument for seeking natural infection as a pathway to immunity, it IS the argument for not allowing coercion of COVID-recovered Americans into undergoing what is an unnecessary and potentially dangerous treatment to them.
I am left wondering why the editorial board of a respected media outlet like the WSJ would allow itself to spread such a lie with no stringent verification:
1) Are you simply careless journalists now? or
2) Are you now active participants in the US Government’s publicity machine attempting to impose a “one-size-fits-all” vaccine policy on all Americans, irrespective of medical necessity, the fundamentals of immunological science and medical ethics?
Irrespective of what the reason is for the lie you have now published in today’s editorial article, it is an absolute journalistic duty for you to either correct or retract this false statement immediately— given that you have been alerted to it.
For the WSJ to publish a critical false statement that opens the door to misleading the public and galvanizing generalist politicians and regulators into comfortably accepting unnecessary, and potentially dangerous coerced vaccination of the already immune subset of Americans, is a florid and dangerous dereliction of journalistic duty — but, of course, this seems to the norm for the mainstream media these days.
Please immediately retract your editorial board’s false statement and correct it to reflect the truth of what is known — and what the science of immunology actually would predict. Your editorial piece, as it stands, promotes a very serious lie to the American people.
Sincerely,
Hooman Noorchashm MD, PhD
https://www.drugwatch.com/contributors/hooman-noorchashm/
Disclaimer: Opinions posted on Free Republic are those of the individual posters and do not necessarily represent the opinion of Free Republic or its management. All materials posted herein are protected by copyright law and the exemption for fair use of copyrighted works.