Posted on 03/12/2016 9:36:07 AM PST by Salvation
Perpetual virginity
3/9/2016
Question: I am a lifelong and devout Catholic and have always considered Mary to be ever virgin. But recently, I read in my Bible that Joseph had no relations with Mary “before” she bore a son (Mt 1:25). Now, I wonder if our belief does not contradict the Bible.— Eugene DeClue, Festus, Missouri
Answer: The Greek word “heos,” which your citation renders “before,” is more accurately translated “until,” which can be ambiguous without a wider context of time. It is true, in English, the usual sense of “until” is that I am doing or not doing something now “until” something changes, and then I start doing or not doing it. However, this is not always the case, even in Scripture.
If I say to you, “God bless you until we meet again.” I do not mean that after we meet again God’s blessing will cease or turn to curses. In this case, “until” is merely being used to refer to an indefinite period of time which may or may not ever occur. Surely, I hope we meet again, but it is possible we will not, so go with God’s blessings, whatever the case.
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In Scripture, too, we encounter “until” being used merely to indicate an indefinite period whose conditions may or may not be met. Thus, we read, “And Michal the daughter of Saul had no child until the day of her death” (2 Sam 6:23). Of course, this should not be taken to mean that she started having children after she died. If I say to you in English that Christ “must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet” (1 Cor 15:25), I do not mean his everlasting kingdom will actually end thereafter.
While “until” often suggests a future change of state, it does not necessarily mean that the change happens — or even can happen. Context is important. It is the same in Greek, where heos, or heos hou, require context to more fully understand what is being affirmed.
The teaching of the perpetual virginity of Mary does not rise or fall on one word, rather, a body of evidence from other sources such as: Mary’s question to the angel as to how a betrothed virgin would conceive; Jesus entrusting Mary to the care of a non-blood relative at this death; and also the long witness of ancient Tradition.
Monsignor Pope Ping from OSV column.
No Biblical evidence that dear Mary remained a virgin after the birth of Christ.
No evidence any Apostle believed it.
No prophecy requires it.
To remain a virgin is a violation of God’s expressed command to be fruitful and multiply.
To remain a virgin is a violation of God’s expressed desire that married couples have sex.
It is, in short, made up out of whole cloth.
Simply an attempt to make Mary a demigoddess.
So your interpretation here is that in this context “until” meant “never did”?
Agreed. The cult of Mary as practiced by some religions is simply a continuation of the Great Mother of Mediterranean lands
A simple reading of the Word in context will clear this up.
Mary’s question to the angel as to how a betrothed virgin would conceive
26Now in the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent from God to a city in Galilee called Nazareth, 27to a virgin engaged to a man whose name was Joseph, of the descendants of David; and the virgin’s name was Mary. 28And coming in, he said to her, “Greetings, favored one! The Lord is with you.” 29But she was very perplexed at this statement, and kept pondering what kind of salutation this was. 30The angel said to her, “Do not be afraid, Mary; for you have found favor with God. 31“And behold, you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you shall name Him Jesus. 32“He will be great and will be called the Son of the Most High; and the Lord God will give Him the throne of His father David; 33and He will reign over the house of Jacob forever, and His kingdom will have no end.” 34Mary said to the angel, “How can this be, since I am a virgin?” 35The angel answered and said to her, “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; and for that reason the holy Child shall be called the Son of God.
The meaning of the Greek in v34 is that Mary had not had not known a man sexually.
097 ginṓskō – properly, to know, especially through personal experience (first-hand acquaintance). 1097 /ginṓskō ("experientially know") is used for example in Lk 1:34, "And Mary [a virgin] said to the angel, 'How will this be since I do not know (1097 /ginṓskō = sexual intimacy) a man?'"Mary understood the birds and the bees.HELPS Word-studies
There is nothing...repeat NOTHING in this passage that ever remotely hints this was a pledge of perpetual virginity. NOTHING.
Jesus entrusting Mary to the care of a non-blood relative at this death
The passage in John where Jesus entrusts Mary to John has nothing to do with the issue of virginity. It is well established in the Word that Joseph and Mary had other children.
Perhaps if the msgr knew his Greek a little better he'd understand this in context.
The appeal to "Tradition" is dismissed. If the catholic is appealing to the protoevangelium of James they are really on very, very thin ground.
Doesn’t the Bible say Jesus had siblings? I guess some people say the word should be translated “cousins,” but the arguments could go on forever.
I just don’t see why God would require Joseph and Mary to remain celibate forever. They were so obedient to Him; why wouldn’t God allow them, after the birth of Jesus, to have a normal marriage and more children? I don’t think a normal marriage and additional children would take anything away from Mary and what a special, obedient, and wonderful woman she was.
You don't think Mary was fruitful?
She gave birth to Jesus Christ.
Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel.
Beautiful prophecy that says nothing about perpetual virginity.
No, it is not.
Not to mention the Scriptures themselves.
Paul calls James the Lord's brother.
And that indicates perpetual virginity just how?
If Mary had other children, then why did Christ create a new son for her on the cross?
Christ was Mary’s only child.
Never let the text of scripture interfere with your presuppositions. It makes theology much more interesting.
Christ instructed John to take care of her as his mother. Apparently, at that moment of His death, no other siblings were in attendance.
In any case, Christ commanded. John obeyed.
The marriage bed is undefiled.
Sex between a husband and wife is good and proper.
Denying each other is what’s wrong.
Mary was already betrothed to Joseph. She was already his wife when the angel visited her.
This again?
Yup.
He didn't.
Christ was Mary’s only child.
An non proveable and contrary to evidence statement.
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