[verga]

Why are you not acknowledging that EITHER translation of the word is true? Why don't you just admit you don't like the term "born again"? You have a right to your own opinion.

WORSDS MEAN THINGS. Those meanings are called DEFINITIONS. ἄνωθεν anthon 's primary meaning is "from above" if you go to ANY ONLINE dictionary, if you use the "Concise Greek-English dictionary of the New Testament" Prepared by Barclay M. Newman Jr., or the KJV Greek Interlinear KJV, you will find the EXACT SAME THING.

If any of them use "Born again" it is not a Primary definition, it is not even a secondary definition, at best it is a tertiary definition, if it is used at all.

That is right, please read again carefully, ANY and ALL dictionaries have "Born again" as a tertiary definition if they have it at all. Not a single one has it as the primary definition. Several don't use it at all.

On the other hand Every one of those same sources give exactly one definition for ἀναγεννήσας anagennao. and that mean is "Born again".

The question you should all be asking is why are prots so insistent on using the tertiary definition of the word at best?

Why are you all so insistent on using the tertiary definition of the word?

[metmom]

If any of them use "Born again" it is not a Primary definition, it is not even a secondary definition, at best it is a tertiary definition, if it is used at all.

Then do you admit that the translators of the Douay-Rheims Bible used the wrong word and translated poorly the phrase that is translated *born again* in John 3, correct?

The question you should all be asking is why are prots so insistent on using the tertiary definition of the word at best?

Then the question becomes, "Why did the CATHOLIC CHURCH use the phrase "born again" in it's approved Douay-Rheims translation of the Bible that it translated itself?"

[Gamecock]

**
That is right, please read again carefully, ANY and ALL dictionaries have "Born again" as a tertiary definition if they have it at all.

//cut

The question you should all be asking is why are prots so insistent on using the tertiary definition of the word at best?

**

Because we don't let dictionaries define what we are but look straight to the inspired word of God.

The real question is why do FRoman Catholics look to secondary and tertiary sources to define their identity?

[CynicalBear]

Why do you fear the term “born again”?

[CynicalBear]

>>Why are you all so insistent on using the tertiary definition of the word?<<

From the Catholic Douay-Rheims Bible.

John 3:3 Jesus answered, and said to him: Amen, amen I say to thee, unless a man be born again (anóthen), he cannot see the kingdom of God.

John 3:7 Wonder not, that I said to thee, you must be born again (anóthen).

Galatians 4:9 But now, after that you have known God, or rather are known by God: how turn you again to the weak and needy elements, which you desire to serve again (anóthen)?

You need to get with your pope and straighten those guys out first it seems to me. Or are you making definitions of scripture over what they say?

[Iscool]

Why are you all so insistent on using the tertiary definition of the word?

You seem to be pretty knowledgeable about this stuff...

How many of the English words of the scriptures are there that used the tertiary meaning of the translated Greek and Hebrew words???

Oh ye of unsurpassed intellect and impeccable character, I leave it to you to discover what the Capital T represents in these words...

Joh 3:3

Jesus
answered T
and
said
unto him, T
Verily, T
verily, T
I say T
unto thee,
Except T
a man T
be born T
again, T
he cannot
see T
the
kingdom T
of God. T

[Elsie]

WORSDS MEAN THINGS.

Only two of yours did.