Posted on 02/10/2015 8:55:01 AM PST by RnMomof7
On my personal blog, and through e-mail, I sometimes get reader requests for posts. People often have interesting questions about a wide variety of issues, and I do what I can to try to tackle reader questions when I can. One of my relatives sent me a question a little over a year ago, and seeing that I had the same question boiling around in my mind many years ago (before I figured it out), I’m thought I’d tackle it and clear up what is a somewhat common question.
The question has to do with whether or not Jesus went to Hell after the cross and why the Apostle’s Creed reads that Christ “descended into hell” (descendit ad inferna). The problem is confounded in that not only does the phrase appear in the Apostles Creed, but it also is arguably insinuated in Acts 2:25-31, Romans 10:6-7, Ephesians 4:7-10, 1 Peter 3:18-20 and 1 Peter 4:6 (though due to time I won’t tackle the biblical texts but rather leave that to people who have already done a far superior job to my possible offerings).[1] So how do we unpack this idea and figure out what is going on in the Apostles’ Creed?
Well, let’s start with the Apostles Creed itself. The Apostles Creed is unlike the Nicene Creed or the Chalcedonian Definition in that it wasn’t a creed written by a church council but rather a summary statement of belief that evolved from a Roman Baptismal formula in the 2nd century and was expanded and edited for roughly 5 centuries. The phrase “descended into hell” didn’t become a standard element of the Apostle’s Creed until at least the mid 7th century.[2] The first recorded occurrence of the phrase “descended into hell” appears in the version of the creed used in the church in Aquileia that is commented upon by Rufinus in his Commentary on the Apostle’s Creed (written around 404 AD). A digital and searchable copy of Rufinus’ work is here and he writes on the phrase “descended into hell”, saying:
Those who have handed down the Creed to us have most carefully specified the time at which these things were done, namely, ” under Pontius Pilate,” so that the tradition of these things should never in any respect vary, as though being vague or uncertain. Yet it should be known that the Creed of the Roman Church does not include the words ” He descended into Hell,” nor is this clause found in the Churches of the East. The meaning of the phrase, however seems to be the same as that of the words “He was buried.” (page 26)
So, even in Rufinus’ day there were multiple versions of the creed, some of which did not include the phrase, and even when it was included the phrase “descended into hell” was understood to refer to the grave. One reason for this would be that in the Old Testament, the place of the dead was called by the Hebrew term “She’ol”, which had a wide semantic range that included the place of post-mortem suffering, the place of post-mortem blessing, and the grave itself. In the day of Rufinus, She’ol was translated into Latin as inferna.[3] The person reading the Latin Old Testament (known as the Vulgate) would regularly see inferna used as the term referring the both the place in which the bodies of the dead were placed, as well as the place to which dead people went, and it would have been a relatively common term in the Latin Old Testament (She’ol occurs 65 times in the Hebrew Old Testament).
So, I’ll cut the Apostle’s Creed discussion short here since, well, that essentially answers the question. Now admittedly there’s lots of scholarly ink spilled here on which Early Church Fathers thought that Christ descended into Hell itself, whether or not they thought of inferna as “the grave” or something else, and what Christ did while in the inferna. This whole debate is interesting, but I’d suggest that the weight of the evidence clearly lies in favor of the understanding of Rufinus; that Christ’s descending into hell simply is another way of restating that he actually, physically died (and consequently was actually, physically resurrected).
In lieu of my rather long posts in my responses to Dr. Michael Brown’s book Authentic Fire, I thought I’d shift gears and toss something short and sweet up for you all!
You’re welcome!
[1] These passages are all thoroughly dealt with by Wayne Grudem and he convincingly argues the conclusion that the idea of Christ’s descent into Hell is nowhere to be found in the scripture. Wayne Grudem, “He Did Not Descend Into Hell: A Plea for Following Scripture instead of the Apostles Creed”, Journal of the Evangelical Theological Society, 34 no. 1 (March 1991), 103-113. Also, for a comprehensive take on 1 Peter 3:18-20 (the main text that people appeal to for biblical support on this question), one should pick up William Kelly’s book Preaching to the Spirits in Prison, which goes through all 22 competing interpretations of 1 Peter 3:18-20 and gives the passage an exhaustive treatment.
Good source and clear. Thanks.
That Christ retrieved the OT saints from purgatory may be tradition, however we are told the following from Christ:
Luke 16:
19 “There was a certain rich man who was clothed in purple and fine linen and fared sumptuously every day. 20 But there was a certain beggar named Lazarus, full of sores, who was laid at his gate, 21 desiring to be fed with the crumbs which fell from the rich man’s table. Moreover the dogs came and licked his sores. 22 So it was that the beggar died, and was carried by the angels to Abraham’s bosom. The rich man also died and was buried. 23 And being in torments in Hades, he lifted up his eyes and saw Abraham afar off, and Lazarus in his bosom.
24 “Then he cried and said, ‘Father Abraham, have mercy on me, and send Lazarus that he may dip the tip of his finger in water and cool my tongue; for I am tormented in this flame.’ 25 But Abraham said, ‘Son, remember that in your lifetime you received your good things, and likewise Lazarus evil things; but now he is comforted and you are tormented. 26 And besides all this, between us and you there is a great gulf fixed, so that those who want to pass from here to you cannot, nor can those from there pass to us.’
From Christ's own description in this parable there were two places. One of comfort at the bosom of Abraham and one of torment. There was a gulf between them each could not pass from one to the other.
Some more info in the following:
Ephesians 4:
7 But to each one of us grace was given according to the measure of Christ’s gift. 8 Therefore He says:
“When He ascended on high, He led captivity captive, And gave gifts to men.”
9 (Now this, “He ascended”—what does it mean but that He also first descended into the lower parts of the earth? 10 He who descended is also the One who ascended far above all the heavens, that He might fill all things.)
Lastly? What did Jesus tell the repentant sinner hanging on the cross next to Him? That he would be in Paradise with Him that day.
Yes! To put all on notice that HE is the Christ, the Son of God, above all others, even all those in hell and who are over hell.
LOL, well done. Are you saying I was born in 'hell' (NY)? But good news, by God's Grace I am now a Texan!
I’m not Roman Catholic, I’m Reformed. I don’t know anyone who believes Christ descended literally to Hell. If he did then he lied to the thief who was saved during his execution. In addition, the punishment he suffered in place of the elect would not have been finished upon his death but rather at his resurrection. Such a position would call into question what exactly Christ meant when he said “it is finished.”
Not really. When He said "it is finished" He was saying the payment for all sin was forever paid and the Old Testament laws made null. That part was finished. When arose from the dead He overcame death.
So much for "infallible "RC doctrine..
May I add some OT
2 Kings 2:1 And it came to pass, when the LORD would take up Elijah into heaven …
2 Kings 2:11As they were going along and talking, behold, there appeared a chariot of fire and horses of fire which separated the two of them. And Elijah went up by a whirlwind to heaven.
Genesis 5:24 Enoch walked faithfully with God; then he was no more, because God took him away.
One wonders where Rome thinks John the baptist went?
They OT SAINTS were saved by LOOKING FORWARD TO THE CROSS
SAINTS TODAY ARE SAVED BY LOOKING BACK TO THE CROSS
There are NO "second chances ".Not for OT people or NT people ... Scripture never teaches 2nd chances
yep .. :>)
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>> “When He said “it is finished” He was saying the payment for all sin was forever paid and the Old Testament laws made null.” <<
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That is the opinion of a person with near zero understanding of God’s word!
In Matthew 5, Yeshua declared that Torah (old testament laws to the ignorant) was to remain until the Earth and the heavens no longer exist.
He said “it is finished” because that is what the High Priest is required to say when the Passover lambs have all been slaughtered.(He was both High Priest, and Passover Lamb)
Those that do not know Yeshua are always anxious for his Torah, the “instructions in righteousness,” to be out of their hopeless path, but that is not to be.
Those that love him keep his commandments; he said so.
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LOLOL!!!!
And guess what?
It’s frozen over now, too.
Was the sacrifice for sins finished or not?
Thanks RWC, that is just about what I thought, that Abraham’s bosom is now empty, and if he preached to the spirits in prison, it was not the gospel he was preaching. He was telling the dead that their doom was sealed for all eternity. I think it might have caused quite a stir among the dead, lost souls. If any of them had any hope of a second chance of getting out of Hell, Jesus just burst their bubble. There is not a snow balls chance in Hell (no pun intended) of anyone having a second chance. Once life on earth is done, it is OVER, forevermore.
Good read....thanks for posting this.
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>> “Was the sacrifice for sins finished or not?” <<
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Of course it is finished, but that was just the first feast, when he said it. There remained Unleavened Bread, and Pentecost before he was to move in next to his daddy.
Remaining at this time are Purim, Yom Teruah, Yom Kippur, Succot, and The Last Great day before Torah has performed its intended service.
That means that it will be at least another 1000 years before the first jot or tittle of Torah falls off the scroll.
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Indeed—our lives are short and but a vapor. James 4:14
Today is the day of Salvation! 2 Corinthians 6:2
We aren’t promised tomorrow, and as much as I hate living among the wolves, it pains me to know that once they die there is no second change—ever!
If Christ’s redemptive work was finished, ie payment for the sins of his elect, why would he descend into Hell literally? Incidentally, Christ did not abolish all old testament laws. In Christ all laws relating to sacrifice and purity are done away with. The civil law remains.
Where are coming up with any of that? In particular where are you coming up with another 1,000 years?
I believe you are greatly mistaken. This topic was dealt with in some detail almost three years ago, and you might want to scrutinize the Comments and the related Scriptures before reasserting the above opinion. I made a comment on Posr #21 of that thread as follows:
"He Descended into Hell . . ." Did Jesus Really Go To Hell: (clilck here to view commnts)
If you haven't understood the doctrine concerning Death, then you ought to. If your religious "authorities" have covered it up or neglected it, you might b quite ignorant of what Jesus' death (the separation of soul and spirit from the body) really means in what it accomplished in God's plan. Here is a little timeline chart of what Scripture says God's plan for souls in the ages has been and is to come:
Because of course 2,000 years of Christian scholarship and near universal agreement, even among Protestants and Roman Catholics, must be ignored because someone on the internet created a chart that he imagines represents scripture in some odd manner. Do you get stock tips when you read scripture?
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