If Christ’s redemptive work was finished, ie payment for the sins of his elect, why would he descend into Hell literally? Incidentally, Christ did not abolish all old testament laws. In Christ all laws relating to sacrifice and purity are done away with. The civil law remains.
Define "hell". He did NOT descend into "hell" if by that you mean a fiery place of torment. Christ said to the thief that He would be with that day in paradise. Paul wrote that He had to descend "to the lower, earthly regions". The word used in the New Testament for that is Hades and is the same place the rich man was and Lazarus and Abraham as we see.
Ephesians 4:9 In Hades, where he was in torment, he looked up and saw Abraham far away, with Lazarus by his side.
Hades is described as the "unseen place" or the invisible realm where all the dead reside. We can only surmise that Hades has two levels, a torment level and a paradise level, since the rich man "looked up" and saw Abraham in that "unseen place". Christ went to that "paradise" level of the "unseen world" not "hell" as in a place of torment. Christ's days of torment were over. In no way did He have to suffer the torment of those who are unforgiven as the rich man was.
>>The civil law remains.<<
I don't think that means what you think it means.