Posted on 12/14/2014 11:57:21 AM PST by ealgeone
The reason for this article is to determine if the worship/veneration given to Mary by the catholic church is justified from a Biblical perspective. This will be evaluated using the Biblical standard and not man’s standard.
You just make undocumented statements that are not truthful.
Just accept that your dispute is your personal opinion.
Mary is the Mother of God. That is not my opinion but a biblical fact. Deal with it.
Mary is the Mother of God. That is not my opinion but a biblical fact. Deal with it.
Mary is the Mother of God. That is not my opinion but a biblical fact. Deal with it.
Mary is the Mother of God. That is not my opinion but a biblical fact. Deal with it.
Mary is the Mother of God. That is not my opinion but a biblical fact. Deal with it.
Mary is the Mother of God. That is not my opinion but a biblical fact. Deal with it.
Mary is the Mother of God. That is not my opinion but a biblical fact. Deal with it.
Mary is the Mother of God. That is not my opinion but a biblical fact. Deal with it.
Mary is the Mother of God. That is not my opinion but a biblical fact. Deal with it.
Yet, that phrase is not FOUND in the bible
It must be one of those unexplainable MIRACLES!
More Romish teaching with NO data to base it on?
Acts 6:8 Now Stephen, a man full (plērēs) of God's grace and power, performed great wonders and signs among the people.
Was Stephen sinless?
>>Wouldn’t God have want a pure sinless person without sin to bear his Son?<<
NO. Are you saying that God could make Mary sinless having been born of sinful parents but not Christ?
That's not in the oldest Greek manuscripts.
Just as I would any corruption of God's word which the DR is.
So beautifully put! And on that lovely note, I shall now seek the company of both, as well! Thanks, and God bless you all!
"You are Israel's teacher, and do you not understand these things?"
Leviticus 5:17-19
“If a person sins and violates any of the Lord’s commandments which must not be violated (although he did not know it at the time, but later realizes he is guilty), then he will bear his punishment for iniquity and must bring a flawless ram from the flock, convertible into silver shekels, for a guilt offering to the priest. So the priest will make atonement on his behalf for his error which he committed (although he himself had not known it) and he will be forgiven. It is a guilt offering; he was surely guilty before the Lord.”
(This is probably just another of those Jewish traditions...)
He would be SO proud of you!!
“It would not be impossible to prove with sufficient repetition and a psychological understanding of the people concerned that a square is in fact a circle. They are mere words, and words can be molded until they clothe ideas and disguise.”
― Joseph Goebbels
How do you find time to POST here?
Let's try some easy math:
There are approximately 1.2 billion Catholics world wide;
If merely 1% of them 'ask' Mary for help just once each day;
that means that 12 million separate prayers are headed Mary's direction every day.
Given that there are 86,400 seconds per day... (24 hours times 60 minutes times 60 seconds)
...that means that Mary has to handle approximately 139 'requests' per second!
Purty good fer someone NOT 'divine'!
I’ve read about compulsions like this.
Give me one statement you thought was not truthful and let's study it in depth.
Why LOOKEE!!!
Jesus is mentioned...
...occasionly.
One can find 107 prayers to Mary in here: http://www.marypages.com/PrayerstoMary.htm
Any of you catholics got a website with this many prayers to JESUS?
Is your brain REALLY this scrambled?
Our friend perhaps; but evidently not adsum’s...
<pre>
yes...i've read that. IIRC in the first one they admitted no Scriptural support for this can be found or sustained.
Catholicism has already admitted you cannot find support for this in Scripture. Not even in Luke 1:28 wish for it as they may.
http://www.catholic.org/encyclopedia/view.php?id=6056
This website bills itself as the source for information on catholicism.
No direct or categorical and stringent proof of the dogma can be brought forward from Scripture. But the term kecharitomene (full of grace ) serves only as an illustration, not as a proof of the dogma.
From the texts Proverbs 8 and Ecclesiasticus 24 (which exalt the Wisdom of God and which in the liturgy are applied to Mary, the most beautiful work of God's Wisdom), or from the Canticle of Canticles ( 4:7 , "Thou art all fair, O my love, and there is not a spot in thee"), no theological conclusion can be drawn. These passages, applied to the Mother of God , may be readily understood by those who know the privilege of Mary, but do not avail to prove the doctrine dogmatically, and are therefore omitted from the Constitution "Ineffabilis Deus". For the theologian it is a matter of conscience not to take an extreme position by applying to a creature texts which might imply the prerogatives of God.
Douay-Rheims and the Aramic Bible in English are the only two major translationstwo who continue to translate Luke1:28 as "full of grace".
Can there be an appeal to "tradition" from the ECFs?
From this summary it appears that the belief in Mary's immunity from sin in her conception was prevalent amongst the Fathers, especially those of the Greek Church. The rhetorical character, however, of many of these and similar passages prevents us from laying too much stress on them, and interpreting them in a strictly literal sense. The Greek Fathers never formally or explicitly discussed the question of the Immaculate Conception.
The catholic cannot appeal to Scripture based on their own admission.
The catholic cannot appeal to tradition based on their own admission.
So, I keep asking....what is the catholic appealing to?
Could you somehow get this fact across to some of your Catholic buddies in these threads?
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