“According to Jerome...”
So you’re now claiming that Jerome is an inspired biblical author? Seriously, you do realize that nowhere in Isaiah 11:1 does the word “Nazarene” appear. Also, Matthew said, “And he went and lived in a city called Nazareth, so that what was spoken by the prophets might be fulfilled, that he would be called a Nazarene.” English Standard Version
I know exactly why that verse is cited as a possible explanation. For a similar reason Judges 13:5 is sometimes cited. Yet neither verse says what Matthew says.
Matthew is essentially extrapolating - which is exactly what you are condemning.
Matthew is not extrapolating, he is stating the accepted understanding of Old Testament prophecies, plural. You can't be serious in claiming that "The Nazarene" was somehow pulled out of thin air by Matthew, can you? Ludicrous, if so. You're rejecting the efforts of Jerome, a saint of your church, who provides you with explanation of Hebrew idiom. They weren't thinking and speaking in Latin, vlad, much as RC apologists might try to impart that impression.
Sure it does. One only needs to know specifically what a 'netzer' is. The 'Branch' prophecies require no speculation.
And yet you've not revealed this knowledge to the rest of us schlubs?