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To: vladimir998
Seriously, you do realize that nowhere in Isaiah 11:1 does the word “Nazarene” appear.

Matthew is not extrapolating, he is stating the accepted understanding of Old Testament prophecies, plural. You can't be serious in claiming that "The Nazarene" was somehow pulled out of thin air by Matthew, can you? Ludicrous, if so. You're rejecting the efforts of Jerome, a saint of your church, who provides you with explanation of Hebrew idiom. They weren't thinking and speaking in Latin, vlad, much as RC apologists might try to impart that impression.

97 posted on 09/17/2014 8:45:59 PM PDT by RegulatorCountry
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To: RegulatorCountry

“Matthew is not extrapolating, he is stating the accepted understanding of Old Testament prophecies, plural.”

Nope. State the EXACT VERSES WITH QUOTES CONTAINING THE word “Nazarene” from the Old Testament that Matthew was relying on. There were no such verses that he used. None. the word Nazarene does not appear in Isaiah 11:1 nor in Judges 13. This is indisputable. And you must realize that relying on “the accepted understanding” is in fact relying on an extrapolation. Understanding is not text. Text is made of words. Understanding is a belief about what the words convey and it does not have to be restricted to the literal.

“You can’t be serious in claiming that “The Nazarene” was somehow pulled out of thin air by Matthew, can you?”

Now you’re extrapolating on what I said because I never once said Matthew “somehow pulled [it] out of thin air”. You keep doing exactly what you condemned.

“Ludicrous, if so. You’re rejecting the efforts of Jerome, a saint of your church, who provides you with explanation of Hebrew idiom.”

I don’t reject his efforts at all. Again you are extrapolating. I asked for a verse from the Old Testament. Why do you think I asked you if you were saying Jerome was an inspired author of scripture?

“They weren’t thinking and speaking in Latin, vlad, much as RC apologists might try to impart that impression.”

No, Matthew was writing in Greek (or Aramaic or Hebrew in an original, possibly). Either way, no verse in the prophets says what Matthew so succinctly says in 2:23. None. He was indeed following a commonly accepted tradition, an extrapolation of the text of the prophets. That’s the point. Matthew did exactly what you condemn and the proof is that you can’t find one verse in the prophets that says the messiah was going to be called a Nazarene.


103 posted on 09/17/2014 9:03:30 PM PDT by vladimir998
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