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Does the Catholic Church Teach "Doctrines of Demons?"
Catholic Answers ^ | July 21, 2013 | Tim Staples

Posted on 07/22/2013 2:45:09 PM PDT by NYer

Two days ago, we had a couple of converts to the Catholic Faith come by the office here at Catholic Answers to get a tour of our facility and to meet the apologists who had been instrumental in their conversions. One of the two gave me a letter she received from her Pentecostal pastor. He had written to her upon his discovery that she was on her way into full communion with the Catholic Church. She asked for advice concerning either how to respond or whether she should respond at all to the letter.

As I read through the multiple points her former pastor made, one brought back particular memories for me, because it was one of my favorites to use in evangelizing Catholics back in my Protestant days. The Catholic Church, he warned, teaches “doctrines of demons” according to the plain words of I Timothy 4:1-3:

Now the Spirit expressly says that in later times some will depart from the faith by giving heed to deceitful spirits and doctrines of demons, through the pretensions of liars whose consciences are seared, who forbid marriage and enjoin abstinence from foods which God created to be received with thanksgiving by those who believe and know the truth.

What is consecrated celibacy if not “forbid[ding] marriage?” And what is mandatory abstinence from meat during the Fridays of Lent if not “enjoin[ing] abstinence from foods which God created to be received with thanksgiving?” So says this Pentecostal pastor. How do we respond?

Innocent on Both Charges

Despite appearances, there are at least two central reasons these claims fail when held up to deeper scrutiny:

1. St. Paul was obviously not condemning consecrated celibacy in I Timothy 4, because in the very next chapter of this same letter, he instructed Timothy pastorally concerning the proper implementation of consecrated celibacy with regard to “enrolled” widows:

Let a widow be enrolled if she is not less than sixty years of age, having been the wife of one husband . . . well attested for her good deeds. . . . But refuse to enroll younger widows; for when they grow wanton against Christ they desire to marry, and so they incur condemnation for having violated their first pledge (I Tim. 5:9-11).

There is nothing ordinarily wrong with a widow remarrying. St. Paul himself made clear in Romans 7:2-3:

[A] married woman is bound by law to her husband as long as he lives. . . . But if her husband dies she is free from that law, and if she remarries another man she is not an adulterous.

Yet, the “widow” of I Timothy 5 is condemned if she remarries? In the words of Ricky Ricardo, St. Paul has some “splainin’ to do.”

The answer lies in the fact that the widow in question had been “enrolled,” which was a first-century equivalent to being “consecrated.” Thus, according to St. Paul, these “enrolled” widows were not only celibate but consecrated as such.

2. St. Paul was obviously not condemning the Church making abstinence from certain foods mandatory, because the Council of Jerusalem, of which St. Paul was a key participant in A.D. 49, did just that in declaring concerning Gentile converts:

For it has seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things: that you abstain from what has been sacrificed to idols and from blood and from what is strangled and from unchastity (Acts 15:28).

This sounds just like "enjoin[ing] abstinence from foods which God created to be received with thanksgiving." So there is obviously something more to I Timothy 4 than what one gets at first glance.

What Was St. Paul Actually Calling “Doctrines of Demons?”

In A Catholic Commentary on Sacred Scripture, the 1953 classic for Scripture study, Fr. R.J. Foster gives us crucial insight into what St. Paul was writing about in I Timothy 4:

[B]ehind these prohibitions there may lie the dualistic principles which were already apparent in Asia Minor when this epistle was written and which were part of the Gnostic heresy.

Evidently, St. Paul was writing against what might be termed the founding fathers of the Gnostic movement that split away from the Church in the first century and would last over 1,000 years, forming many different sects and taking many different forms.

Generally speaking, Gnostics taught that spirit was good and matter was pure evil. We know some of them even taught there were two gods, or two “eternal principles,” that are the sources of all that is. There was a good principle, or god, who created all spirit, while an evil principle created the material world.

Moreover, we humans had a pre-human existence, according to the Gnostics, and were in perfect bliss as pure spirits dwelling in light and in the fullness of the “gnosis” or “knowledge.” Perfect bliss, that is, until our parents did something evil: They got married. Through the conjugal act perfectly pure spirits are snatched out of that perfect bliss and trapped in evil bodies, causing the darkening of the intellect and the loss of the fullness of the "gnosis." Thus, salvation would only come through the gaining, or regaining, of the “gnosis” that the Gnostics alone possessed.

Eating meat was also forbidden because its consumption would bring more evil matter into the body, having the effect of both keeping a person bound to his evil body and further darkening the intellect.

Thus, these early Gnostics forbade “marriage and enjoin[ed] abstinence from foods which God created to be received with thanksgiving.”

If there are any remaining doubts as to whom St. Paul was referring as teaching "doctrines of demons," he tips his hand in his final exhortation in I Timothy 6:20-21:

O Timothy, guard what has been entrusted to you. Avoid the godless chatter and contradictions of what is falsely called knowledge, for by professing it some have missed the mark as regards faith. Grace be with you.

The Greek word translated above as “knowledge” is gnoseos. Sound familiar? The bottom line is this: St. Paul was not condemning the Catholic Church in I Timothy 4; he was warning against early Gnostics who were leading Christians astray via their “gnosis,” which was no true gnosis at all.


TOPICS: Apologetics; Catholic; Evangelical Christian
KEYWORDS: demons; evil; exorcism; satan; timstaples
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To: presently no screen name

Aren’t you the one serving two masters? Sola Scriptura is not a valid belief.


401 posted on 07/24/2013 7:47:42 PM PDT by Salvation ("With God all things are possible." Matthew 19:26)
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To: Iscool
>>===> 1 Corinthians 11:29 For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh damnation to himself, not discerning the Lord's body <===<<

"That won't work either...Even the best of you guys tells us that since the cracker and the wine still looks, tastes, smells, feels and talks like a cracker and wine after the so-called consecration where this stuff turns into flesh and blood, it becomes a matter of Catholic Faith that the event actually took place...Since, to the normal senses, you couldn't prove it... Therefore, it is definitely not a matter of discernment ie, recognizing the bread and wine as flesh and blood when it comes to your Eucharist...You guys claim it is 'faith', not discernment... You then should be able to recognize that the verse is speaking to something else...

- - - - - - -

You sound EXACTLY like the non-believers in the time of Jesus on Earth sounded, who repeatedly mocked Jesus Christ.

They reasoned in a very similar way to the way you "reason" -- Jesus LOOKED like a mere human being just like everyone else, and TALKED, WALKED, ATE, DRANK, SMELLED, CRIED, SLEPT, (etc.) just like every other healthy human being, so they DID NOT BELIEVE AT ALL THAT HE WAS GOD!

Their extremely limited input from their five human senses did not tell them He was God, so they sadly only trusted their very limited human senses, instead of trusting the living Word of God. (Discernement is MUCH MORE than just the input of the five physical human senses. You should learn that.) Most of His contemporaries did not see (DISCERN) with the eyes of faith, so they only saw a mere man -- NOT God.

The truth is, NOBODY alive today bases their faith on the fact that they "saw" or perceived God with their five human senses, as nobody sees God in any fashion here today but with the "eyes of faith".

For those fools in Jesus days (as for similar fools today) it was the most stupid and the gravest mistake they would ever make in their entire lives.

Their five senses told them one thing: "There is NO WAY that that is God! That is just a mere man, just like all the rest of us!"

P.S. Their five senses were wrong.

402 posted on 07/24/2013 7:53:20 PM PDT by Heart-Rest (Good reading ==> | ncregister.com | catholic.com | ewtn.com | newadvent.org |)
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Comment #403 Removed by Moderator

To: Jvette; Iscool
I think that protestants make much of this for one reason only and that is as an attempt to justify their rejection of the one, true Church.

Believe me, there are FAR more weightier differences than this one why Catholicism is rejected. I think that Catholics make so much of this issue for the simple reason of having to defend a dogma (the perpetual virginity of Mary) that has no Scriptural basis and, instead, have good reasons from Scripture that deny it. This is also justification for a lot of Catholics for the worship of Mary and the many titles of exaltation they give to her. If Catholics want to believe their version of Mary, it's no skin off my nose but what I DO object to is the insistence that they are right and others are wrong. This is one of those areas that are neutral since no one can really know for sure one way or the other. Why aren't non-Catholic Christians allowed to think differently on this and be allowed to explain why?

404 posted on 07/24/2013 10:05:49 PM PDT by boatbums (God is ready to assume full responsibility for the life wholly yielded to Him.)
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To: presently no screen name
I've found this really good website that has every kind of information about Luther one could want and many links to translations of the man's works. It is http://beggarsallreformation.blogspot.com/.

As for your insight about all that we humans value and imagine is the key to our happiness in "stuff", those verses in II Peter 3:10,11 come to mind:

But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up. Seeing then that all these things shall be dissolved, what manner of persons ought you to be in all holy conversation and godliness?

On that day when God creates a new heaven and new earth, all that men fight and kill for will be destroyed. In light of that, what kind of people should we be? What kind of holy and godly lives should we live in light of the temporary nature of stuff? That's powerful!

405 posted on 07/24/2013 10:20:14 PM PDT by boatbums (God is ready to assume full responsibility for the life wholly yielded to Him.)
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To: Iscool

You have been asked three times to document that Jesus said you must be “born again” You have failed to do so. Don’t ever repeat this lie again.
I have shown clearly that the term is “Born from above” If you say anything else it will be cleat to all that you are repeating a lie that you know is a lie.


406 posted on 07/25/2013 4:24:02 AM PDT by verga (A nation divided by Zero!)
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To: Iscool

To be fair, I had never heard of that argument before (using Deuteronomy to support “until”). Perhaps I should have researched that further. I usually consider Catholic Answers a good go-to for “basic” apologetics. My bad.

Having said that, I almost didn’t include the full link and only copied and pasted the portion re: the use of the word “brothers” (since that was specifically what count-your-change had asked of me).

Thanks for pointing that out to me though. I wouldn’t call that proof of Church deception however. I would call that an error on the part of Catholic Answers...and it probably should be pointed out to them. I certainly don’t care for it.


407 posted on 07/25/2013 4:44:57 AM PDT by piusv
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To: Iscool

Since the Protestant argument against the perpetual virginity of Mary is that the Bible states that Jesus had literal brothers by the use of the word “brothers”, then which is it?

DNA would mean that the brothers mentioned in the Bible were His real, literal brothers. No DNA means not really literal brothers.

We’re not talking about “adopted” brothers and sisters here as it is use in Church. We’re talking about blood brothers....other brothers born of Mary.


408 posted on 07/25/2013 4:53:55 AM PDT by piusv
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To: Heart-Rest
Wow, Iscool, it is too bad you weren't around to correct all those scholars and professional translators who all chose to translate that Greek word to either "relative", or "kinswoman"

Didn't need to be...Those early translators who translated into English translated the word as 'cousin'...It is the modern Catholic bibles that avoid using the word cousin...And for good reason, eh???

(By the way, you DO know that there were also several different, non-matching versions of the King James Bible, don't you?)

There's close to 300 of 'em now...And so what???<.p>

Bible says Jesus had brothers and sisters who were not distant relatives...Bible also says Mary had a distant relative who was not a brother or sister...Pretty easy to understand...What religion has an interest in tweaking these words to mean something different to present Mary in a light that can't be found in scripture???

409 posted on 07/25/2013 5:29:18 AM PDT by Iscool
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To: Iscool
aBible says Jesus had brothers and sisters who were not distant relatives...Bible also says Mary had a distant relative who was not a brother or sister...Pretty easy to understand...What religion has an interest in tweaking these words to mean something different to present Mary in a light that can't be found in scripture???

Bible says Jesus said "This is My Body" and This is My Blood."

Can't have it both ways can you? Oh wait you simply ignore inconvenient facts

410 posted on 07/25/2013 5:41:41 AM PDT by verga (A nation divided by Zero!)
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To: Heart-Rest
You sound EXACTLY like the non-believers in the time of Jesus on Earth sounded, who repeatedly mocked Jesus Christ.

I see your Catholicism is starting to seep out of your pores...

You want to point out where I ever mocked Jesus??? It's your false religion that I'm not afraid to mock...

They reasoned in a very similar way to the way you "reason" -- Jesus LOOKED like a mere human being just like everyone else, and TALKED, WALKED, ATE, DRANK, SMELLED, CRIED, SLEPT, (etc.) just like every other healthy human being, so they DID NOT BELIEVE AT ALL THAT HE WAS GOD!

Jesus was careful to hide his miracles as much as possible...When Jesus performed a miracle, he instructed those close to him to avoid telling anyone...

Those people did not disbelieve Jesus because he looked and acted like a man...They disbelieved his words...

(Discernement is MUCH MORE than just the input of the five physical human senses. You should learn that.) Most of His contemporaries did not see (DISCERN) with the eyes of faith, so they only saw a mere man -- NOT God.

I did learn that...You don't discern with faith...You discern with knowledge...

δοκιμάζω
dokimazō
dok-im-ad'-zo
From G1384; to test (literally or figuratively); by implication to approve: - allow, discern, examine, X like, (ap-) prove, try.

And you certainly didn't learn from knowledge that Jesus did not have brothers and sisters, or that one of your priests can turn the risen body of Jesus Christ into a piece of cracker----to be ingested into your stomach and then somehow be transferred thru the walls of your intestines into your soul...It's a matter of faith, not discernment...

So we can be certain that the verse you posted has nothing to do with spiritually recognizing Jesus blood in a glass of wine...

411 posted on 07/25/2013 5:55:39 AM PDT by Iscool
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To: verga
I have shown clearly that the term is “Born from above” If you say anything else it will be cleat to all that you are repeating a lie that you know is a lie.

You haven't shown anything other than you think you are smarter than the real scholars who translated the bible into English...The word you are losing your soup over can and has been translated as born again...And that's the only way the scripture makes any sense...

You can rest assured I won't lose any sleep over your tantrum...

412 posted on 07/25/2013 6:02:51 AM PDT by Iscool
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To: piusv
Thanks for pointing that out to me though. I wouldn’t call that proof of Church deception however. I would call that an error on the part of Catholic Answers...and it probably should be pointed out to them. I certainly don’t care for it.

What makes it so bad is that this attempt at apologetics is the major one your religion uses to defend its position that 'til' doesn't mean 'til'...

413 posted on 07/25/2013 6:06:12 AM PDT by Iscool
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To: piusv
Since the Protestant argument against the perpetual virginity of Mary is that the Bible states that Jesus had literal brothers by the use of the word “brothers”, then which is it?

Of course it's DNA brothers and sisters...

Mat 12:47 Then one said unto him, Behold, thy mother and thy brethren stand without, desiring to speak with thee.

DNA Mothers...DNA brothers...Not relatives...

Mat 12:48 But he answered and said unto him that told him, Who is my mother? and who are my brethren?

Mat 12:49 And he stretched forth his hand toward his disciples, and said, Behold my mother and my brethren!

NOT DNA Mother and brothers but spiritual Mother and brothers...NOT relatives...

Mat 12:50 For whosoever shall do the will of my Father which is in heaven, the same is my brother, and sister, and mother.

Again, NOT DNA Mother and brothers...And NOT relatives...Spiritual brothers and Mother...We are members of one body and are spiritual Fathers and Mothers, brothers and sisters...

414 posted on 07/25/2013 6:21:03 AM PDT by Iscool
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To: verga
Bible says Jesus said "This is My Body" and This is My Blood."

Can't have it both ways can you? Oh wait you simply ignore inconvenient facts

Nope...There are literal spiritual brothers and sisters...There is literal spiritual water to spiritually drink...There is literal spiritual flesh and blood to spiritually eat...

415 posted on 07/25/2013 6:26:34 AM PDT by Iscool
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To: verga

Obviously you’ve done some research on this word “anothen”, is there anywhere in the Scriptures that it is used to mean “beginning” or “anew”?


416 posted on 07/25/2013 6:39:44 AM PDT by count-your-change (you don't have to be brilliant, not being stupid is enough)
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To: Iscool

It’s actually not the major one. But that doesn’t really matter to you, so there really is no need to go any further.


417 posted on 07/25/2013 7:08:33 AM PDT by piusv
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To: Iscool

How do you know that your interpretation of which is DNA and which is not is correct?


418 posted on 07/25/2013 7:09:46 AM PDT by piusv
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To: Heart-Rest
Ok...perhaps you can honestly answer the question no other FRoman would directly answer.

This is in the framework of the explanation coming from the Council of Trent, and the Grecian philosophical language used to describe transubstantiation.

After consecration, the body is said to be present, as they put it, "under the forms of the bread and the wine". Correct?

That leaves the visible forms unchanged, in that the bread (in the modern instance, the Eucharist wafer) outwardly appears, just to the senses alone; sight, smell, taste, touch -- I guess we could work hearing into this too, if one tested an not-consecrated waver for whatever 'sound' made when it was broken or crushed, then compared that to a consecrated communion wafer.

The wine too, still appears as before. A taste test would be subjective, of course...but if one were to subject the wine to molecular analysis, or put a drop on a slide, under a high-powered microscope, before and after samples would most likely not have any visibly apparent difference. Correct?

Now this is all ok, for remember, the "body" is said to be present "under" the forms of the bread and the wine. As far as I can tell, though Trent spoke of the bread becoming or being "fully the body" of Christ (after consecration) they also mentioned the "species" does not change. Do you know what they meant by "species"? It was something of a made-up or otherwise borrowed but redefined word, taking the place of "accident" in the Greek philosophy-derived description.

There needed to be *some* sort of explanation. Given the times, it is perhaps understandable that it came about in the way that it did. At this point, one could try going back to before Aquinas perhaps, but the previous textual mentions were less than uniform---with most whom wrote, reasonably, possibly, speaking from standpoint of "faith", even of "spirit", even as at the same time they were needing address the earthly "physical" aspect.

Since to the Greeks, an idea itself was more fundamentally real than the all-but superficiality of senseless physical objects, it was perhaps unavoidable that Aquinas described the matter in the way he did (using the "substance" and "accidents" wording) although as I made mention of, Trent did not adopt his language for it, in toto, but instead substituted "species" for "accident".

To further confuse things...the usage of "form" appears to have been itself dual-tracked, in that there was "form", which in the Greek usage was as underlying reality, or over-all truth or reality of a thing (a chair is a chair, even if made of wood. the wood is the accident, the chair is the form, the form is the reality of what it "is").

At Trent, there was the phrase "under the forms" (of the bread & wine), hence my attempt to describe, clumsy as it may be, the "dual-track" simultaneous usage of the word "form". A reality, under a reality? Seems strange, doesn't it? How could the uninitiated ever understand it? By being browbeaten into it, or by intimidation?

Telling myself or others again, about "faith" or seeing with eyes of faith, (I have faith) though of course an important, intrinsically needful component of overall understanding, is also a bit neither here nor there, if one is speaking only of the trans-formative process itself (otherwise said to be done by authority---not reliant upon faith, or with mention of "faith" involved in the transubstantiation process itself) along with the definitions and usages of the word themselves, used to describe what occurs. Needing faith to "see" it --- is another issue. We can get there, but please. First things, first.

Previously when discussing this, searching to confirm one way or another there were those here who appeared to me to have taken the issue further, believing or at least talking as if the "species" as Trent used the word, itself also changed, not just change or real presence "under the form of the species", got me nowhere but a big runaround of avoidance talk, just so much copy/paste discussion from elsewhere, with that coming across as effort to educate or school me using the opinions of some other Roman Catholic, than the one I was conversing with --- with myself wondering if he or she had made this progression towards the species itself being transformed more than just "under" it's form.

I provided some easy links to explanation and brief discussion of such concepts as "form" "accident" and "substance" as known in Aristotelian philosophy, which were what Aquinas employed in his own description. All fine and well enough...

The question is ---do you agree that the outward, what is visible, the "species" remains the unchanged? How about that it at least APPEARS to remain unchanged?

' Trent says so (briefly touching upon that aspect, almost as if the writers even then wished to skip over it, and go whole hog , I mean species transformation) but they didn't quite, and I couldn't get a single FRoman to agree with their own church, even after repeated attempts. Looking towards Trent for definition is fair enough --- for there has not been any later much of any other "official" declaration, has there? Everything else, just "opinion" which may or may not be needed to be believed by anyone --- unless those opinions somehow be in the realm of the infallible.

The closest I came was receiving answer concerning "seeing with the eyes of faith". Well, ok. But first, what of the "species"? Let that be honestly spoken of, then we can move on to faith.

One can speak of "eyes of faith" all one wishes to, but to myself concerning this, only after some confession, or at least some frank discussion. Then the next step, that of faith, can be taken.

So which is it? I was asking...for it seems to me that some Roman Catholics may believe the "species" itself changes. If so, then that would be a marked increase of trans-formative power in what change is said to occur, as Trent put it, "under the forms" ---again, according to Trent, leaving the "species" unchanged in outward appearance, but now..? Is the specie itself changed. If so -- then why could one not see, smell, taste, or otherwise by touch or test, not be able to discern any difference?

All of this came about for reason one seemed to have objection, or apparently wanted to "teach" me, due to my having included that saying a simple "this is the body" would suffice, when discussing the issue in a slightly differing context.

According to Trent, though after consecration there may be room for one to say it "is" the literal body and blood of Christ, one can not say that the "species" itself literally changes, unless there has been significant progression since Trent. Please forgive me for belaboring the point through repetition and slight re-phrasings, but I do intend to make it perfectly clear as to what aspects I am discussing. Can you at least SEE what it is I am talking about? Part of the frustration, is that seeming few understand the word definitions and usages by which transubstantiation was described, or if they do, just jump right past with no acknowledgement whatsoever to tell me all about the body and the blood, as if I were a kindergartner, while I'm speaking towards word usages, and history, and the interplay of those things in context of the history of Christianity, including faith itself, too.

Being that those same words, once used at Trent to describe transubstantiation now carry, or are freighted with materialistic definitions and usages, the meanings themselves have subtly shifted in direction of more "physical" change...when the original usage left it more up for grabs, as to interpretation...even allowing a "spiritual" or as otherwise known -- pneumatic presence understanding to be applicable without being in conflict with official RC declarative statements in regards to bread of communion, for the "spiritual" view allows for real enough "body and blood" (for God is a Spirit, and those whom worship must do so in spirit and in truth) and it's not like anyone went and gathered manna 'small as hoarfrost' to assemble the wafers from, leaving the pneumatic description not all that much different than the wording (as the per the words then used, then at that time definitions) at Trent --- other than denial that RC priests alone had the "authority" to compel the transformation to occur by their own words spoken over what were ordinary objects or "species".

Can you see that, even though you yourself may be able to "see" with eyes of faith, that others may look upon the descriptions, and how they are spoken about, and suspect not precisely sleight-of-hand (for it's not like soylent green is being substituted for what was originally a wafer), but suspect a less than honest appraisal of the proceedings if it is not confessed to -- that the "species" itself, to a disinterested, say neutrally "scientific" observer, shows no discernible change?

419 posted on 07/25/2013 7:12:58 AM PDT by BlueDragon (...and if my thought dreams, could be seen, They'd probably put my head, in a guillotine...)
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