Posted on 06/03/2012 1:47:18 PM PDT by Salvation
No.
Was God obligated to adhere to whatever Peter bound or loosed?
No.
But that doesn't address the issue.
You tell me whether God is obligated to act on whatever Peter bound or loosed. We weren't talking about what I believe about it, but rather what the Catholic church teaches.
Go ahead. Tell me that God is not obligated to adhere to what Peter or the pope bind or loose.
Cite conversations I've had with people?
When you figure out how to do that, let me know and I'll provide them.
Otherwise, daniel posted plenty in post 424.
Go back and read post 353 and try to brush up on your reading comprehension issues.
I wasn’t talking about the *official* party line which has nothing whatsoever with what goes on at the grassroots level of any Catholic church I’ve ever seen or been part of.
There are two profound problems with that challenge"
1) Unless you are willing to receive the truth it would be a pointless exercise and presumes no one has ever tried.
"The person without the Spirit does not accept the things that come from the Spirit of God but considers them foolishness, and cannot understand them because they are discerned only through the Spirit." - 1 Corinthians 2:14
2) The demand to cite proof shows a lack of faith. Faith is the cooperation with Grace. Faith does not proceed from premise or from reason, it is the response to God's call. It is an act of the will, the acceptance of things not seen, not understood and not known.
"Then Jesus told him, 'Because you have seen me, you have believed; blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed.'" - John 20:29
You begin your journey of faith by choosing to believe that Jesus is Lord and God and declaring your love for Him.
Peace be with you.
Why not?
No.
Why not?
We weren't talking about what I believe about it, but rather what the Catholic church teaches.
Rather, we were talking about what you claimed the Catholic Church teaches.
Go ahead. Tell me that God is not obligated to adhere to what Peter or the pope bind or loose.
Catholics believe the Church is inseparable from God and is guided by the Holy Spirit. Any binding or loosing is through the guidance of the Holy Spirit. So, to say that God is obligated to adhere to Peter or the Pope with the binding or loosing doesn't make sense since the binding or loosing is with the guidance of God, the Holy Spirit, acting through Peter or the Pope.
Seriously, there are no run on sentences, unless you are complaining about the proclamations of your own church.
Let's suppose that person A holds the belief that you must have faith to be saved. And let's also suppose person B claims to have no faith. In your view, has person A condemned person B to hell?
Yes. Doctrinally he has classed that person as condemned, passing judgment on the faithless, based upon what he said in the light of the authority he judges by.
"He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him. " (John 3:36)
"By faith Noah, being warned of God of things not seen as yet, moved with fear, prepared an ark to the saving of his house; by the which he condemned the world, and became heir of the righteousness which is by faith. " (Hebrews 11:7)
What you have failed to do is to make a distinction between condemning one in the declarative sense based upon Scripture, versus claiming executive power to do execute the sentence. Yet as many RCs hold that binding and loosing extends to that, so that would apply here
With regard to the mystic body of Christ, that is, all the faithful, the priest has the power of the keys, or the power of delivering sinners from hell, of making them worthy of paradise, and of changing them from the slaves of Satan into the children of God. And God himself is obliged to abide by the judgment of his priests, and either not to pardon or to pardon, according as they refuse or give absolution, provided the penitent is capable of it. " Such is," says St. Maximus of Turin, " this judiciary power ascribed to Peter that its de cision carries with it the decision of God." 2 The sen tence of the priest precedes, and God subscribes to it. Dignity and Duties of the Priest, St. Alphonsus Ligouri, Vol. 12, p. 2. http://www.archive.org/stream/alphonsusworks12liguuoft/alphonsusworks12liguuoft_djvu.txt
That is a false premise. Since God is omniscient and exists out side of time God already knew what Peter and all of his successors would bind and loose. Think of it as single predestination.
Peace be with you
Here is what you said:The reason they specify Roman or Ukrainian is not because neither considered the other legit. It is because they have different liturgies. They are both fully in communion and one is as legit as the other. Again, you have shown no evidence to demonstrate they weren't considered legit.
And in post 403 you made the claim:
The Eastern Catholics are in full communion. In fact, we have Latin Catholics posting here on FR who routinely attend Eastern Catholic liturgies. I've done so many times myself, including at Ukrainian Greek Catholic churches, because the Church considers them to be not only good enough but in full communion.
Otherwise, daniel posted plenty in post 424.
Nothing he posted demonstrates that the Latin Catholics consider Ukrainian Greek Catholics as not fully Catholic.
Go back and read post 353 and try to brush up on your reading comprehension issues.
Here is what you said:
And in post 403 you made the claim:
The Eastern Catholics are in full communion. In fact, we have Latin Catholics posting here on FR who routinely attend Eastern Catholic liturgies. I've done so many times myself, including at Ukrainian Greek Catholic churches, because the Church considers them to be not only good enough but in full communion.
I would even go further and assert that the one denigrating a person with whom they disagree is who truly is demonstrating bitterness as well as anger. They are showing an inability to be confident in what they believe and so they must impugn the one they are in conflict with to settle their own doubts about their faith. I'm not a psychologist, but I recognize "projection" when I see it.
Finally, regarding infant baptism, it is such a minor issue that I marvel that anyone has to make such a big production over it that they go so far as to deny fellowship to others who disagree with them or resort to labeling them "heretics" just because they think differently about a minor issue. And infant baptism IS a minor issue. I'll tell you why - babies or very young children do NOT have the capability to give their assent to belief in Jesus Christ so that makes the ordinance of baptism to be INEFFECTIVE for them. Scripture, when it speaks about baptism, NEVER mentions it outside of a person FIRST believing and then submitting to baptism. It was always done as an outward testimony of a heartfelt, inward change of heart - repentance. There is NO Scriptural reference about babies being baptized and, since the Gospels and epistles that make up the New Testament were written decades after the fact, no mention of a "tradition" of doing so.
I don't dispute that the concept DEVELOPED over time, but it was certainly NOT something the Apostles asserted had to be done. Should children be dedicated to the Lord and raise in the nurture and admonition of the Lord? Of course, but it is NOT the same as baptism. A strong factor to prove this assertion is simply the changes even the Roman Catholic Church has made about what happens to babies that die without being baptized. Some theologians said they went to hell. Some, thinking that was too harsh for a loving God, said they went to a place the called "Limbo" - though such a place is nowhere found in Scripture. Now what does the Roman church teach? They don't say either way anymore. Just something to the effect that God is merciful. Well DUH! That's what we've been saying all along. Babies aren't baptized because they cannot believe and they are innocent of personal sin and, though they have a sin nature inherited from Adam, the mercy and grace of God covers such innocents and they WILL be with Him in heaven.
Baptism should be reserved for the TRUE purpose it was created for - to testify to others that we have made a choice to follow Christ and live in newness of life. It is not the act that saves us but the faith behind the act. being baptized has NO effect at all unless there is faith and that is why it is faith that saves us. God saves us by His grace THROUGH faith. No outward acts supplement that but God saves us when we believe on the Lord Jesus Christ.
Person A may have a view what will condemn person B if his ways aren't changed, but person A has not condemned person B to hell, just as the Church has no power do damn anyone to hell. As was stated earlier, The Church, like all churches, has declared that certain practices and beliefs will result in damnation, but doesn't claim the ability to enforce it.
What you have failed to do is to make a distinction between condemning one in the declarative sense based upon Scripture, versus claiming executive power to do execute the sentence.
The distinction has already been made.
This is not an issue of "ownership", it is an issue of demonstrable doctrinal continuity. The Early Church Fathers preached a form of Christianity and Liturgy that more closely resembles modern Catholicism than any other form of Christianity or denominational doctrine. That form of Christianity was embodied in the Traditions and Creeds that preceded and produced the Canon of Scripture. The Church does not spend time extracting snippets and quotes attempting to prove that they were like us, we have spent the last 2,000 years ensuring that we remain like them.
Peace be with you.
Interesting. You were in on the conversations I had with the people I lived with and worked with?
You can't tell me what others said to me isn't true because you weren't there to witness and hear the conversations. You can't pass judgment on their veracity. The only options you have is to tell me I'm lying, which you just did here, or to tell me that that is not what you experienced. But you have no basis for telling me what I experienced is not true.
Again, the evidence makes the RCC look bad, so the typical recourse is to attack the integrity of the person relating the information.
Right there it tells me I hit a nerve.
Another thing you seem to be incapable of understanding is the distinction between official church position and the thinking of the grassroots lay Catholics.
My comment was about the PEOPLE in the Catholic church, not the technical position of the *Church*.
The Roman Catholic laity does not consider Ukrainian Catholics entirely legit. They look down their noses at them and the Ukrainian Catholics are well aware of the spiritual snobbery of the Roman Catholics as being in the REAL TRUE Church.
That is true indeed.
But it's so much easier to dismiss a former Catholic's position if you can paint it as being the result of emotional failure. It's an attempt to kill two birds with one stone. It attempts to discredit the message and the messenger.
You are working hard to to utterly absolve Rome from condemning souls to Hell, but the fact is she does in the judgmental sense, judging them as damned (for those who die in mortal sin), as we also do by preaching the necessity of salvation and surety of damnation to those who deny Christ, even if we do not have the actual power to put them there.
So much more if Rome claims the power to bind men in their sins. The Supreme Court also does not have the power to enforce what it decrees, but if it judges a man guilty of a capital crime, then what it decides effects enforcement by the entity that has the power and that awaits its decree.
And again in the judgmental sense, “By faith Noah, being warned of God of things not seen as yet, moved with fear, prepared an ark to the saving of his house; by the which he condemned the world, and became heir of the righteousness which is by faith. “ (Hebrews 11:7)
“The men of Nineve shall rise up in the judgment with this generation, and shall condemn it: for they repented at the preaching of Jonas; and, behold, a greater than Jonas is here. “ (Luke 11:32)
The priest who refuses to remit someone's sins does in effect, condemn them to hell. Just because they leave God to do the dirty work, if they really believe that the the Church has the power to bind a man's sins to him or remit them, then they are the ones who are making the executive decision. That makes them responsible.
If it is not an issue of "ownership", then why the outrage and guffaws whenever a non-Catholic Christian uses the words and thoughts of some of those ECFs? You must know that the Reformers moved as they did because the Church of Rome had turned away from the orthodox faith in many, demonstrable ways and when we here use the quotations from those ECFs to prove the changes that have occurred over the centuries, we are criticized and condemned for "taking them out of context" or misunderstanding or misstating them. Yet, over and over again - just as those Reformers did - we can prove the very contentions we make. I strongly disagree that the Roman Catholic Church has remained consistent with the orthodox Christian faith for the past 2000 years and that WAS the point the Reformers made.
Probably the biggest - and the most important one - was the doctrine of justification by faith without works - sola fide. The claim is usually made that nobody advocated for justification by faith alone before the Reformation, that no ECF ever taught that we are saved by faith apart from works. We know, however, from the very writings of those early theologians that they understood that very basic of Scriptural doctrines. Were there disagreements among some over the extent of justification versus sanctification? Yes, just as there have been disagreements over many of the interpretations of the other tenets of the Christian faith, but, rather than just rely upon these early believers to explain Scriptural doctrines, we should let Scripture interpret Scripture. Let Paul explain Luke and Mark and let Matthew and John explain Paul or Peter or James. What makes these ECFs any more qualified to explain Scriptural truths decades or centuries removed from the actual dates of the Biblical writings than the Apostles who were THERE and contemporaries of those other writers?
An interesting explanation is given at http://triablogue.blogspot.com/2009/12/seeds-of-reformation.html:
"Every major tenet of the Reformation had considerable support in the catholic tradition. That was eminently true of the central Reformation teaching of justification by faith alone .That the ground of our salvation is the unearned favor of God in Christ, and that all we need do to obtain it is to trust that favor this was the confession of great catholic saints and teachers .Romes reactions [to the Protestant reformers] were the doctrinal decrees of the Council of Trent and the Roman Catechism based upon those decrees. In these decrees, the Council of Trent selected and elevated to official status the notion of justification by faith plus works, which was only one of the doctrines of justification in the medieval theologians and ancient fathers. When the reformers attacked this notion in the name of the doctrine of justification by faith alone a doctrine also attested to by some medieval theologians and ancient fathers Rome reacted by canonizing one trend in preference to all the others. What had previously been permitted also (justification by faith alone), now became forbidden. In condemning the Protestant Reformation, the Council of Trent condemned part of its own catholic tradition. (RRC, 49, 51-52)
James Swan quotes the following from another book Pelikan wrote, one that I haven't read:
"Existing side by side in pre-Reformation theology were several ways of interpreting the righteousness of God and the act of justification. They ranged from strongly moralistic views that seemed to equate justification with moral renewal to ultra-forensic views, which saw justification as a 'nude imputation' that seemed possible apart from Christ, by an arbitrary decree of God. Between these extremes were many combinations; and though certain views predominated in late nominalism, it is not possible even there to speak of a single doctrine of justification."
Many other scholars have made comments similar to Pelikan's. One of the best brief overviews of this subject that I've seen is Nick Needham's chapter in JIP, 25-53. Needham makes many points relevant to this post, including the following:
"The language of justification occurs reasonably often in the fathers. What does the language mean? Although it does not always have the same precise connotation, it seems clear that there is a very prominent strand of usage in which it has a basically forensic meaning....The forensic framework of this justification language is further illustrated by another strand of patristic teaching that employs the concept of imputation - reckoning or crediting something to someone's account, a synthesis of legal and financial metaphors, where the books that are being kept are 'judgment books.'" (27-28, 32)
Additional ECF teachings are discussed at this link. I hope you will take a few minutes and read it. But with the issue of who is the true representative of the form of Christianity taught in Holy Scripture given to us by God, it should be those very Scriptures which stand as witness and not necessarily who did what within their own cultural and traditional communities. With the question of justification and righteousness being an infused or imputed righteousness, I believe the Scriptures DO settle that question most clearly.
I hope you have a good night.
The Church, the Priest and God Himself do not condemn anyone to hell. God only permits the the consequences of our sin. The priest must and does refuse absolution to a penitent when he thinks the penitent is not rightly disposed for the Sacrament. When a penitent is not contrite and does not resolve to not repeat the sin then the penitent has chosen to remain in sin.
Peace be with you.
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