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To: narses; Turtlepower; 1000 silverlings; Alex Murphy; bkaycee; blue-duncan; boatbums; caww; ...
Really? So if we go by “Sola Scriptura”, if it isn’t in the Bible it isn’t. Right? Mary and Joseph never married. Right?

Do you really want to go there?

Of course they were married. God told him to do it and Matthew clearly records that Joseph obeyed Him.

Matthew 1:18-25 18Now the birth of Jesus Christ took place in this way. When his mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph, before they came together she was found to be with child from the Holy Spirit. 19And her husband Joseph, being a just man and unwilling to put her to shame, resolved to divorce her quietly. 20But as he considered these things, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, "Joseph, son of David, do not fear to take Mary as your wife, for that which is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit. 21She will bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins." 22 All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had spoken by the prophet:
23 "Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and they shall call his name Immanuel" (which means, God with us).

24When Joseph woke from sleep, he did as the angel of the Lord commanded him: he took his wife, 25but knew her not until she had given birth to a son. And he called his name Jesus.

It doesn't get much simpler than that.

God told Joseph to marry Mary. He did it. He waited to consummate the marriage until after the birth of Jesus.

Or do you suppose they lived together in a platonic relationship without getting married, letting everybody think that Joseph was the father of Jesus, thus leading everyone to believe that they were in an illicit relationship?

256 posted on 06/01/2011 6:19:20 AM PDT by metmom (Welfare was never meant to be a career choice.)
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To: metmom

Typical catholic tactic...”If it isn’t in the Bible”..same o’ same o’.


261 posted on 06/01/2011 7:06:01 AM PDT by caww
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To: metmom; Turtlepower; it_ürür; Bockscar; Mary Kochan; Bed_Zeppelin; YellowRoseofTx; Rashputin; ...
God told Joseph to marry Mary. He did it. He waited to consummate the marriage until after the birth of Jesus.
Well there we have it. The triumph of Y.O.P.I.O.S., one protty says Joseph was engaged to Mary, the other says he actually married her but delayed consummation until the Birth. Both are convinced they are right. Who knows?

She became the Mother of God, in which work so many and such great good things are bestowed on her as pass man's understanding. For on this there follows all honor, all blessedness, and her unique place in the whole of mankind, among which she has no equal, namely, that she had a child by the Father in heaven, and such a Child . . . Hence men have crowded all her glory into a single word, calling her the Mother of God . . . None can say of her nor announce to her greater things, even though he had as many tongues as the earth possesses flowers and blades of grass: the sky, stars; and the sea, grains of sand. It needs to be pondered in the heart what it means to be the Mother of God. (Commentary on the Magnificat, 1521; in Luther's Works, Pelikan et al, vol. 21, 326)

262 posted on 06/01/2011 7:11:22 AM PDT by narses ("Fallacies do not cease to be fallacies because they become fashions." Chesterton)
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To: metmom; boatbums; caww; RnMomof7; bkaycee; blue-duncan

And once again (and again, and again) if SS, in which all is subject to the Scriptures, and what is needed for salvation and to be perfect and for every good work, (2Tim. 3:17) is supplied by it, formally or materially, meant solO scriptura instead, then no adherent of the former could teach the 70AD destruction of the Temple, or quote a commentary, etc. But straw men are easy to burn.

As for the perpetual virginity of Mary, while this is not a salvific issue, nor impossible, such would be contrary to the description of marriage affirmed by Christ, in which in they “leave and cleave” so “they shall be one flesh,” (Gn. 2:24) and the counsel of Paul in 1Cor. 7:5.

We cannot limited God in disallowing a perpetual virginity, yet it is a case of limiting the Holy One of Israel to hold that Mary had to be sinless for Christ to be incarnated thru her, as the wholly God-breathed Word of God of Scripture came thru holy but fallen men.


265 posted on 06/01/2011 8:11:21 AM PDT by daniel1212 ( "Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out," Acts 3:19)
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