And once again (and again, and again) if SS, in which all is subject to the Scriptures, and what is needed for salvation and to be perfect and for every good work, (2Tim. 3:17) is supplied by it, formally or materially, meant solO scriptura instead, then no adherent of the former could teach the 70AD destruction of the Temple, or quote a commentary, etc. But straw men are easy to burn.
As for the perpetual virginity of Mary, while this is not a salvific issue, nor impossible, such would be contrary to the description of marriage affirmed by Christ, in which in they “leave and cleave” so “they shall be one flesh,” (Gn. 2:24) and the counsel of Paul in 1Cor. 7:5.
We cannot limited God in disallowing a perpetual virginity, yet it is a case of limiting the Holy One of Israel to hold that Mary had to be sinless for Christ to be incarnated thru her, as the wholly God-breathed Word of God of Scripture came thru holy but fallen men.
The fact is Christ Himself was sinless...and He is our Salvation not Mary. It sometimes gets unnerving when so much attention is given to his mother. Was she a virgin or not, was she sinless or not. Salvation isn't about Mary sinlessness it's about her son,.... and she made that perfectly clear. Since the Holy Spirit continuously points to Christ...I have no doubt Mary would and did so throughout her pregnancy and news of. She was humble before God. The Mary I see Rome depict is not in the least the Mary I see recorded in scripture....rather a manufactured image used to keep people bound to an idol instead of Christ.
Basically, this is a controversy of the integrity of Scripture.
Either Scripture is accurate and correct and Joseph married Mary and delayed union with her until after Jesus was born and then they proceeded to have other children as are referenced and named in the Gospels, or they didn’t.
Now, the Catholic church makes claim to the writing and canonization of Scripture.
If indeed Mary was perpetually a virgin and everybody knew it at the time then why....
1) Did the writers of the Gospels use the word adelphos, which clearly means brother and adelphai, which clearly means sister?
2) Did the writers of the Gospels state that Joseph married Mary and make comment about their union?
And if everyone at the time knew that she was perpetually a virgin, why didn’t the writers of the Gospels simply state so in so many words. If they has simply said that Joseph married Mary and never had any union with her, that she remained perpetually virgin, then that would be that. No problem.
Instead they canonized as infallible Scripture something that at the very least can be classified as ambiguous if you really stretch it, but is not ambiguous if you simple read it as is.