Posted on 12/06/2006 4:29:58 PM PST by HAL9000
Excerpt -
ROME (AP) - Vatican archaeologists have unearthed a sarcophagus believed to contain the remains of the Apostle Paul that had been buried beneath Rome's second largest basilica.The sarcophagus, which dates back to at least A.D. 390, has been the subject of an extended excavation that began in 2002 and was completed last month, the project's head said this week.
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(Excerpt) Read more at christianpost.com ...
Putting the idol worship aside, that sure is some beautiful architecture.
Martin Luther's wife.
You do realize whose tomb it is don't you?
And I agree, it is beautiful.
It's been less than 200 years. Produce them for me.
Jesus said that God is spirit. And considering what we know about consciousness, resurrecting that would make the body unnecessary. Interestingly, John Paul II didn't seem the least concerned about the preservation of his body.
Your question happens to be irrelevant. After the Resurrection, before the Ascension, at the time when Jesus presented Himself to the disciples, He said His body had nailprints, and offered Himself for examination to prove the point. Were there nailprints because nails had been driven into those parts of His body, or because He was putting one over on them?
Well count me as one of those. I had never heard of it. Not really pertinent to the teachings of Christ one would think though. Course there are a lot of traditions that have risen up in many denominations that aren't really pertinent as well
The following is the fascinating story of Scott Hahn and his conversion. Hahn was a Protestant minister who, after much prayer and incredible study of the the Bible and theology, converted to Catholicism. You may find it interesting (or not, lol). Hahn's writings on scripture and the Church are extremely well researched, eloquent, and enlightening.
http://www.chnetwork.org/scotthconv.htm
God did, on the basis of which writtings He had inspired.
Could the Church put Thomas in the Canon? Why or why not? If it does, would Thomas gain in authority, or would it always have had this authority?
You, in particular, may find the following of interest.:)
The following is the fascinating story of Scott Hahn and his conversion. Hahn was a Protestant minister who, after much prayer and incredible study of the the Bible and theology, converted to Catholicism. You may find it interesting (or not, lol). Hahn's writings on scripture and the Church are extremely well researched, eloquent, and enlightening.
http://www.chnetwork.org/scotthconv.htm
Nonsense...they did not pass along any story of Mary's sinlessness.
As for the title of Co-Redemptrix; it is simply a statement of the fact that Mary was an active participant
No, "co" implies equality whenever it is used (as in co-ruler or co-op or co-sign). "Co" never implies simply an aide.
Yes, she was a participant in God's plan as was Abraham. But he is not considered a co-redemptrix. That was a very unfortunate term for the RCC to assign a created woman.
>>That is why she was assumed (body and soul) into heaven by her Son, who spared her the dishonor of decay.
You are assuming a lot!
Sorry twisted humor here.
I did not know this about catholic doctrine; can you point me to a source?
BTW, Love your tagline.
So you'll follow some vague "what we know about consciousness" instead of Scripture.
You might want to check out the work and writings of Marcus Grodi.
Absolutely. But when was it decided that the "Gospel of Thomas," for instance, didn't make the cut? When, where, and by whom?
Could the Church put Thomas in the Canon?
No.
Why or why not?
Because it was never used Liturgically: Lex orandi, lex credendi. Nor was it referenced as authoritative by the Ante-Nicene Fathers, or received as Scripture in Orthodox/Catholic Churches. That's the basis the Ecumenical Councils used, to determine the authenticity of Scriptures: liturgical, patristic, and ecclesial Tradition. The spurious texts were not in the Tradition.
If it does, would Thomas gain in authority, or would it always have had this authority?
No other books can be added to or subtracted from the Canon of Scripture. This is on the authority of the Church, "the Pillar and the Foundation of Truth." 1 Timothy 3:15.
P.S. to Kolokotronis: from an Orthodox point of view, what say ye?
I've heard Mr. Hahn on tape. Anyone can be deceived. I do not deny that the church may have Roman Catholics within, as the Lord calls whom He choses. But each person called into new life has the responsibility to walk in Truth - God's Word - rather than fall into the deception of the flesh - most extra-Biblical religious doctrines.
By the surviving history, it was never given any serious consideration.
Because it was never used Liturgically: Lex orandi, lex credendi. Nor was it referenced as authoritative by the Ante-Nicene Fathers, or received as Scripture in Orthodox/Catholic Churches. That's the basis the Ecumenical Councils used, to determine the authenticity of Scriptures: liturgical, patristic, and ecclesial Tradition. The spurious texts were not in the Tradition.
So take the question back a step. When the Church used a book, was it recognizing something that would have been true of the book in any case, or was it giving the book something? Could the Church have used Thomas liturgically, and if it had would Thomas be Canon?
I just learned it recently. The internet has been a great place to dind these things out. I have learned alot about Catholic teaching. If you grow up in an area where there are not Catholics like I did you know nothing about their theology. And I suspect it is the same vise versa. But this is not something to argue over.
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