Posted on 06/24/2003 3:49:56 PM PDT by Patrick Madrid
There is a huge difference when you cut and paste, do not link or name the source you are using and pass it off as your own writing. Many, many of the poster's (who I criticized) posts that I have read are obviously not his own words (I think after a while we know how one another writes) so I put half dozen or so words in quotes and do a google search. Never fails, I find someone else wrote what he posted. I just think it is sad because it almost seems that the person doesn't trust themselves to be able to explain what they believe.
I don't want to get into a pissing match over this stuff, so I have deliberately not pinged anyone else. Do a search... And, the person I criticized was very gratious. I meant nothing personal, but coming on a thread and not even bothering to offer a theological opinion on the subject and doing a hit and run is crummy. And then look what happened with that poster and another poster. Stupid.
Well, bind me to a stake and let the Jesuits burn my corpse...
Holy Trinitarian Relevancy, Batman, it's an actually cogent Romanist Argument.
Every other Romanist Argument I've ever encountered seems intent upon wiggling through a "linguistic loophole" which might, at the extreme borders of possibility, PERMIT an equivalence between PROTOTOKON ("first-born") and MONOGENE ("Only-Born")... like a Defense Lawyer who knows his client is guilty, he's just trying to get him off on a Legal Technicality (an example I may use again, but I thought your Post deserved first consideration).
You're actually arguing that, in this particular Case, PROTOTOKON might be preferable for Trinitarian (i.e., Anti-Mormon, Anti-Arian) Theology.
As you already said, am I going to agree with you? NO, OF COURSE NOT. "First-Born" is still the normative and organic interpretation of prototokon, which does not mean "Only-Born".
And as detailed in my #160-161, I have offered at least four Principal Arguments, each of which must be independently overthrown. And I think you must admit my reservation of the fact that, in terms of positive evidence, you have not overthrown ANY of my arguments.
But in terms of answering My Arguments -- that is, not disproving (which you have not done), but in terms of offering a Plausible Alternative (which I will graciously admit that you have) -- you have answered, if not overthrown, the "PROTOTOKON" vs. "MONOGENE" disputation.
PROTOTOKON really is NOT the appropriate Greek terminology for an "Only Son"; but in this particular case, you've undertaken to actually justify the possible rationale for the Roman Claim.
And I'll give credit where it is due. Rather than basically admit "linguistic Guilt" and attempt to get the Roman Case off on a Legal Loophole, Rather than attempt to exculpate the PROTOTOKON on a mere Linguistic Technicality (which is, IMHO, the usual Roman Argument), you're attempting to provide an actual Alibi for your Client as to *why* Prototokon might be preferable to Monogene in this unique case.
So have you overthrown my first Argument (that is, Disproved it?) No, you have not. You have merely answered it (that is, provided a Plausible Alternative).
But I gotta at least respect that. As Mr. Madrid said, an "A for Effort" -- AlguyA... you've gotta fine Linguistic Counter-Argument there on the "first-born" vs. "only-born" matter, and never let it be said that I won't admit a good Argument. (After all, if I could knock it down off the top of my head... I would).
All that said -- you've still got at least three more Principal Arguments to go (see #160 and #161).
Bon Mot, AlguyA.
Best, OP
To assist you in your confusion, I have here posted what I actually said. I did not say that the Theotokos was trivial. I said that one "thing in which the Orthodox church agrees with the RC church" was trivial.
I checked all of my posts for the day you specified and am unable to find any link I posted as you describe here. None of our Orthodox clergy have ever used the title of "pope". It is my understanding that the word originated from the Italians, so I am fairly certain that you are confused here.
Please be kind enough to clear this up for me, in the interests of accuracy and to avoid slander of my church.
I don't remember the name of the website and I didn't bookmark it, but the name stayed with me as it began with "Pope" and that surprised me.
I don't know how you could think I am trying to slander your Church? I wouldn't ever do that.
I am done here. The peace of Christ be with you.
I find no Biblical basis for the notion that Mary was without sin. Even if she was, that ceratainly is no reason to believe she was a perpetual virgin.
She may be a little confused. The head of the Coptic church is called "Pope", but the Coptic church is a Monothelete church, and is not in communion with the Orthodox churches.
I know I've seen references to "the Pope of Rome" which were not needlessly redundant.
SD
Sorry, gospel of Thomas is not Scripture. I give it no weight.
So in the future, keep your snide comments about my failures to document things with absolute proof to yourself, or practise what you preach. Thanks.
SD
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