Posted on 03/08/2003 11:16:06 AM PST by Commander8
QUESTION: Should the Bible say "Lucifer" or "morning star" in Isaiah 14:12? And does it refer to Satan?
(Excerpt) Read more at chick.com ...
l"ly"h n.m. appell. shining one, epith. of king of Babylon.
Actually shining one would be best translation since it is not interpretative. Both morning star and Lucifer are interpretative in that they give a meaning beyond the literal sense of the term. I don't disagree with the KJV interpretation of the Hebrew term, but it is an interpretation none the less.
The Morning Star is the Virgin Mary.
St. John 9:5
St. John 14:6
1st. John 1: 6-7
Colossians 1: 12-14
Amen,.........More Grace and Mercy,.........In Jesus' Precious Name, Amen!!!
Maranatha (LIGHT) Truth!
Excerpted - click for full article ^ Source: http://www.chick.com/ask/articles/lucifer.asp
And your Mary worship clouds yours (Jer.44)
While he yet talked to the people, behold his mother and his brethren stood without, desiring to speak to him, but he answered and said, Who is my mother? and who are my brethren? And he stretched forth his hands toward his disciples and said 'behold my mother and my brethren' for whosoever shall do the will of my Fahter which is in heaven is my brother and sister and mother. (Matt.12:48-50)
That is someway to treat the 'queen of heaven' isn't it? The Lord did not even acknowledge her as His mother!
In fact, throughout the entire Gospels He never even addresses her once as mother! He addresses her as woman!
Israel.
Who is the 'woman' of Rev.17?
Oh, thats right praying to someone isn't the same as worshipping them! So when you pray on your rosary' holy Mary, mother of God, giving her the title of God 'holy',(Ps.105:3) you are not praying to her?
Lets see, you believe Mary was born from an Immaculate Conception, (thus, was sinless like Christ,despite the fact that she had to offer a sin offering for herself (Lk.2:24), and rose again and was ascended bodily into heaven like Christ.
And she was offically deemed the 'queen' of heaven was she not by the Papacy in the 19th century?
You are applying 21st century cultural standards, linguistics and your personal opinion to a Biblical passage and coming up with "Jesus didn't respect his mother enough to call her Mother".
Well, where in the scriptures did he ever do so?
He called her 'woman'.
Christ loved and respected Mary as his mother, but that was all she was, his mother, someone who was blessed by God to give birth to the saviour.
It is Christ not Mary that is the issue.
Try again.
Thus saith the Lord of hosts, the God of Israel, saying; Ye and your wives have both spoken with your mouths, and fulfilled with your hand, saying we shall surely perform our vows that we have vowed, to burn incense to the queen of heaven, and to pour out drink offerings unto her....(Jer.44:25)
Shining one would be the literal interpetation, but not necessary the best one.
Now, the real issue is why has a word that has been in our Bibles for some 500years been changed (every Bible before the 1611 had that word)
The onus is on those who change it to prove that their change is justified and indeed better.
Had they gone the 'literal route' a case may be made that they were trying to be literal (although the NIV is very much dominated by 'dynamic equivalant's).
However, to stick in a translation that causes confusion and does not clarify the passage is very much suspect.
Here is a quoted from David Hunt's work, The seduction of Christianity.
Hunt is not a King James defender.
Take the recently popular movie 2010 for example. In the film, a new sun suddenly appeared in the sky and brought peace to earth just as the American and Soviets were about to engage in nuclear war. What the film did not explain, Arthur C. Clarke did in his book; the sun was named Lucifer, no doubt inhonor of the power that brought it into existance. Sprangler further explains the relationship of Anti-Christ to Lucifer and why Lucifer will be worshipped,
Christ is the same force as Lucifer....Lucifer perpares man for the experience of Christhood...(he is) the great initiator....Lucifer works within each of us to bring us to wholeness and as we move into the new age...each of us in some way is brought to that point which I term the Luciferic initiation.... that many people now, and in the days ahead will be facing, for it is an initiation into the New Age (P.60 )
The name 'Lucifer' has to be first disassociated from Isa.14 and Satans fall, then switched to 'morning star' to confuse him with the Lord Jesus Christ.
"Sirius is very important."
-- Robert Anton Wilson
Cosmic Trigger : Final Secret of the Illuminati
As I also said, the meaning goes beyond the literal. The Morning Star is a symbol of many virtues. It can represent graces that God will bestow directly on the soul or the graces God has given Mary to bestow on those who honor her.
And I gave you an earlier scripture where the promise is made to give you the morning star if you persevere
Rev 2:28 And I will give him the morning star.
So I asked a logical question..IF the morning star in scripture is Mary then how can God give her to you?
It is clear from this quote that Jesus is the Bright and Morning star
Rev 22:16 I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, [and] the bright and morning star
I do not "hate " Mary ..my daughters both carry her name..BUT I do not replace Jesus with her..or confuse her with Jesus
Protestants ask scriptural proof..you do not have it here ..sorry
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