Posted on 10/31/2010 11:59:22 AM PDT by RnMomof7
In Christ Alone lyrics
Songwriters: Getty, Julian Keith; Townend, Stuart Richard;
In Christ alone my hope is found He is my light, my strength, my song This Cornerstone, this solid ground Firm through the fiercest drought and storm
What heights of love, what depths of peace When fears are stilled, when strivings cease My Comforter, my All in All Here in the love of Christ I stand
In Christ alone, who took on flesh Fullness of God in helpless Babe This gift of love and righteousness Scorned by the ones He came to save
?Til on that cross as Jesus died The wrath of God was satisfied For every sin on Him was laid Here in the death of Christ I live, I live
There in the ground His body lay Light of the world by darkness slain Then bursting forth in glorious Day Up from the grave He rose again
And as He stands in victory Sin?s curse has lost its grip on me For I am His and He is mine Bought with the precious blood of Christ
kosta50 wrote:
“Except the OT church would deisagree.”
And you would know that ... how?
Neither am I, unless the word usually translated as "sactifice" also means a "victim," i.e. thysia in Greek, zhertva in Slavonic. Of course, there is a word that means "offering" which doesn't mean a "victim", i.e. prosphora in Greek, or voznesheniye in Slaovnic (i.e. that which you bring to someone).
It all depends which word is used. Look up thysia and then look up Matthew 9:13, 12:7; Mark 9:49; Luke 2:24; Acts 7:41-42; Romans 12:1; 1 Corinthians 10:18; Ephesians 5:2; Philippians 2:17, 4:18; Hebrews 5:1; 7:27, 8:3, 9:9, 9:23, 9:26, 10:1, 10:5, 10:8, 10:11-12, 10:26, 11:4, and 13:15-16 all use the word thysia (or thusia, as some choose to spell it) as in sacrifice.
There is no doubt that in all these examples victim in his verses, such as in Ephesians 5:2 where he says that Christ gave himself as an offering (prosphora) and sacrifice/victim (thysia) to God.
From the people who brought you the Old Testament.
Hardly informative or convincing.
Not in Greek (unless you are dealing with the Greek-speaking Jewish diaspora in Alexandria or Asia Minor), but most definitely in Aramaic. The Targums were in use for quite a while. Even your source acknowledges that the latter parts of the Old Testament (Daniel being the last one) were written in part or entirely in Aramaic.
I also firmly believe that, although some of the Jews may not have spoken Hebrew the learned and religious ones certainly were fluent in it. Paul included
No doubt about that. It's like saying that some people schooled in religious studies have mastered Latin, Greek or Hebrew, but the same cannot be said of the general population.
I still don't understand what the point is that Jesus read the verses in Hebrew. Jews read the verses in Hebrew (transliterated) even if they don't understand them.
My point was that in order to explain the verses he had to re-read them or comment on them in Aramaic, i.e. based on Targum, which is to say an expanded translation.
That's what they say about Christians, who stole their scriptures. I'd be scandalized too. Look what the Mormons did with Christianity and now they pretend to be "Christians."
Again, hardly informative or convincing.
Also, what makes you think that they understand the meaning and purpose of the OT Scriptures any better than, for example, Caiaphas did 2000 years ago? And in this, let us remember, it has nothing to do with the understanding of the Hebrew language. That is a given in both cases. Given what the OT prophets say repeatedly, the problem was not restricted either to those of 21st century or the 1st century A.D.
What makes you think that Christians understand Jewish scriptures better than the Jews do? Why should I believe you that they are wrong and you are right? Why not Mormons or Muslims? Because you say so?
How do you even know what Caiphas knew? From what an anonymous writer with an agenda had to say about him 2000 years ago?
The short answer would be Jesus the Christ.
And you, of course, have no agenda? Who is being naive here?
Beyond that I must say: Sorry, kosta50, you are stuck in your own nightmare of doubt. I have no desire to join you there.
Is that a fact?
And you, of course, have no agenda? Who is being naive here?
Pot calling the kettle black?
Sorry, kosta50, you are stuck in your own nightmare of doubt. I have no desire to join you there.
Sorry, Belteshazzar, maybe you are stuck in your own delusion. I have no desire to join you there.
Talk about cherry-picking! Does your random verse generator have verses such as "be holy because I am holy"? or "be perfect as your Father in heaven is perfect"?
Yup, it is a fact. Goodnight, kosta50.
“Avoid foolish disputes, genealogies, contentions, and strivings about the law; for they are unprofitable and useless ...” (Titus 3:9)
And my point was that in Jesus' day (1st. century) they had the OT in Hebrew (it was NOT the LXX). I wanted to show that it had not disappeared prior to that.
No, not cherry-picking just quoting scripture that talked about sanctification. And just how do you think anyone can be as holy and perfect as God? (Hint: With man this is impossible...)
If that were the case, translating would be a simple task and there would be no controversies.
...and sacrifice/victim (thysia) to God.
There you go again. If sacrifice and victim meant the same thing, why use both words? I'll go back to my definitions where it stated that "parents sacrifice for their children" is not the same as "parents are victims for their children". They might come from the same word but they have two totally different meanings within the context.
Would you say "...they gave a grain sacrifice to God" or "...they gave a grain victim to God"? It is all about context and the two words have different connotations.
And of course men can do that right?
We can no more be as Holy as God as we can keep the 10 commandments.. The purpose of the law, the purpose of the call to be Holy as God is Holy is to show us our need for a Savior..
Gal 3:24 — Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster [to bring us] unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.
Rom 3:20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law [is] the knowledge of sin.
Rom 7:7 What shall we say then? [Is] the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.
Rom 7:8 But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin [was] dead.
Rom 7:9 For I was alive without the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived, and I died.
"Sort of like "αδελφός"....
What is vile in proving the divinity of Jesus? Or even, simply, visiting a doctor?
The believer is purified as inferior material burns off. No one said anything about punishment. Purgatory means the place of purification, not punishment.
Read the scripture with attention and you will become convinced in the truth of the Catholic Church.
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