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To: kosta50; OLD REGGIE
My point was that in order to explain the verses he had to re-read them or comment on them in Aramaic, i.e. based on Targum, which is to say an expanded translation.

And my point was that in Jesus' day (1st. century) they had the OT in Hebrew (it was NOT the LXX). I wanted to show that it had not disappeared prior to that.

2,854 posted on 11/21/2010 10:57:27 PM PST by boatbums (God is ready to assume full responsibility for the life wholly yielded to him.)
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To: boatbums; OLD REGGIE
And my point was that in Jesus' day (1st. century) they had the OT in Hebrew (it was NOT the LXX). I wanted to show that it had not disappeared prior to that

You are right. However, it was just like Latin in the Catholic Church. The LXX did replace the Hebrew in Greek-speaking Jewish communities in Alexandria and Asia Minor between the 3rd and 2nd century BC.

2,868 posted on 11/22/2010 6:50:13 AM PST by kosta50 (God is tired of repenting -- Jeremiah 15:6, KJV)
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