Many people assume that the Ten Commandments and the covenant God established with ancient Israel are identical—and that both were abolished by Jesus Christ's death.
HUH?!?!? What The ...
Posted on 04/21/2007 6:18:02 AM PDT by DouglasKC
Great reading that may challenge your perceptions.
Oh, really? Who?
Quite a few. Stick around this thread long enough and you'll probably see some popping up.
Oh, really? Who?
Quite a few. Stick around this thread long enough and you'll probably see some popping up.
The phrase, "I did not come to abolish the law, but to fulfill it" goes right over their heads, huh?
Many people assume that the Ten Commandments and the covenant God established with ancient Israel are identical—and that both were abolished by Jesus Christ's death.
HUH?!?!? What The ...
I’ve never seen or heard anyone suggesting that the Ten Commandments were abolished.
Maybe I just don’t get out enough.
I can see how some would see it this way but that would be a matter of knowledge of WHY Christ HAD to die.
One thing people really do not consider, is Christ died more for his enemies, than his friends.
Interesting point.
To be fair, it's usually brought up in the context of the sabbath commandment. If one believes that the ten commandments are not abolished, then one has to believe that the sabbath commandment is still in force for Christians today.
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Then perhaps the author should have been honest about his personal focus, rather than waving a straw man about.
I'm just saying ...
Just a study note regarding the different meanings of Rom 4:15 and 1stJohn 3:4 english translation of the word “transgression” from the Greek.
The transgression referred to in 1st john 3:4 is a different Greek word referring to an iniquity or unrighteousness, a transgression of the law, HANOMIA.
(1Jn 3:4) Whosoever3956 committeth4160 sin266 transgresseth also the law:4160, 2532, 458 for2532 sin266 is2076 the3588 transgression of the law.458
pas o poion ten hamartian kai ten anomian poiei kai e hamartia estin e anomia
The passage in Romans refers to a breaking or violation of law, PARABASIS
(Rom 4:15) Because1063 the3588 law3551 worketh2716 wrath:3709 for1063 where3757 no3756 law3551 is,2076 there is no3761 transgression.3847
o gar nomos orgen katergazetai ou gar ouk/de estin nomos oude parabasis
The author makes a logical error in his argument by identifying the two words to argue his conclusion, ie. its invalid. This doesn;t mean his statements aren’t true, merely that the argument isn’t sound.
Is this a Scripture debate, or archaeological/historical debate thread?
Quite a few pre-Jewish religions had equivalents and parallel teachings, most influential to Judeo-Christian philosophy being the Zoroastrian Asha Vahishta.
But that might not be along the lines you wanted to have this thread follow.
I don't think it's a strawman. There are others who believe we only have to obey the ten commandments because they are mentioned in the new testament. The reasoning is that if they're not mentioned, then God's voicing the ten commandments in Exodus are invalidated.
Both if you want.
Quite a few pre-Jewish religions had equivalents and parallel teachings, most influential to Judeo-Christian philosophy being the Zoroastrian Asha Vahishta. But that might not be along the lines you wanted to have this thread follow.
I'm of the opinion that God's commandments were not totally unknown before Sinai. It's very likely that other cultures and societies were aware of them and tried to follow them to the best of their ability.
Thank you for your input. I don't think the authors point was to prove that the two greek words were equivalent. Rather, his point was to show that God certainly does have laws and that there are numerous ways in which we can violate them.
The author has apparently never heard of Natural Law.
Can you sum up your viewpoint on just what natural law is?
Great movie...and he has given me these 15...oops...these 10 commandments!
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