Just a study note regarding the different meanings of Rom 4:15 and 1stJohn 3:4 english translation of the word “transgression” from the Greek.
The transgression referred to in 1st john 3:4 is a different Greek word referring to an iniquity or unrighteousness, a transgression of the law, HANOMIA.
(1Jn 3:4) Whosoever3956 committeth4160 sin266 transgresseth also the law:4160, 2532, 458 for2532 sin266 is2076 the3588 transgression of the law.458
pas o poion ten hamartian kai ten anomian poiei kai e hamartia estin e anomia
The passage in Romans refers to a breaking or violation of law, PARABASIS
(Rom 4:15) Because1063 the3588 law3551 worketh2716 wrath:3709 for1063 where3757 no3756 law3551 is,2076 there is no3761 transgression.3847
o gar nomos orgen katergazetai ou gar ouk/de estin nomos oude parabasis
The author makes a logical error in his argument by identifying the two words to argue his conclusion, ie. its invalid. This doesn;t mean his statements aren’t true, merely that the argument isn’t sound.
Thank you for your input. I don't think the authors point was to prove that the two greek words were equivalent. Rather, his point was to show that God certainly does have laws and that there are numerous ways in which we can violate them.