Interesting ... Your article, since I am a 'former Catholic' and primarily former for the Churches over emphasis on 'things Mary', had me do some checking before I commented on this article.
I did find the following writeup on Immaculate Conception from the Catholic Encyclopedia:
". . .in the first instance of her conception . . ." The term conception does not mean the active or generative conception by her parents. Her body was formed in the womb of the mother, and the father had the usual share in its formation. The question does not concern the immaculateness of the generative activity of her parents. Neither does it concern the passive conception absolutely and simply (conceptio seminis carnis, inchoata), which, according to the order of nature, precedes the infusion of the rational soul. The person is truly conceived when the soul is created and infused into the body. Mary was preserved exempt from all stain of original sin at the first moment of her animation, and sanctifying grace was given to her before sin could have taken effect in her soul.
Now this fascinates me. It clears up some fog, if the above is held true, in that the church does NOT believe that Mary was 'immaculately conceived', i.e. denying her parents the creation of thier child in the womb via the natural way that God gave man and woman; rather it goes on to define Immaculate Conception as the 'void' of original sin in Mary since God had plans for her before she was born.
Is that it? Someone please comment on this as it seems that the 'definition' of Mary's Immaculate Conception has changed over time. Perhaps it's me too that has changed, but I would be interested to hear from others if they believe this teaching has not always been as above.
ping
BTTT!
Today is also my mother's birthday. She was originally to be named Mary, but my great-grandmother said no. It is her middle name, however. AVE MARIA!