Posted on 09/10/2004 10:06:13 AM PDT by followerofchrist
LONDON -- A commission seeking to resolve the Anglican Communion's crisis over a homosexual U.S. bishop and other gay issues wrapped up its work Friday and said it would publish its report on Oct. 18.
(Excerpt) Read more at newsday.com ...
The arguments I have heard have centered not on striking such passages, but on neutralizing them by arguing that anti-homosexual passages in the Bible don't refer to what they do.
The argument goes that the anti-homosexual references in the Bible are referring only to homosexual rape or one-night stands, but does not describe or speak about monogamous long-term loving homosexual relationships. They further state that in the context of the times, such kinds of relationships were not heard of. Therefore, the Bible wasn't/couldn't refer to them. This also explains why Jesus said that marriage was for disparate-sex couples only; there was no such thing at the time as lovingly bonded same-sex couples at that time, and so Jesus didn't express approval of something that didn't exist.
This begs a few questions. One is whether or not their concept of what the Bible verses in question are actually referring to. It also presumes that in fact, long-term homosexual relationships didn't exist in the Holy Land and in Greece in the 1st Century AD. It presumes that Jesus couldn't conceive of long-term homosexual relationships (but I thought He was divine ...). And it presumes that loving long-term homosexual relationships exist.
If the people of the church like sin so much, they might as well disban and all go home.
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