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To: Sidebar Moderator

I’m not sure this would be the case. If a prosecutor files a murder charge and accuses the defendant of shooting someone, does he have to re-file the case if it turns out the cause of death was blunt force trauma but it was still caused by the same perpetrator?


2 posted on 02/11/2021 3:07:24 AM PST by Alberta's Child ("There's somebody new and he sure ain't no rodeo man.")
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To: Alberta's Child

No, this is a different charge.

This is more like filing burglary charges, then finding out a murder had taken place in the store.

You cannot piggyback one charge on an existing one.

In your example it is the same CHARGE, just a difference in method.


3 posted on 02/11/2021 3:12:11 AM PST by freedumb2003 (No matter what, resist and stop the agenda of blow bidet and hairass the whore)
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To: Alberta's Child

Good point - if this process was consistent with reason and logic. And Constitutional law. But, as we know, it’s purely political. The “prosecutors” aren’t even pretending to adhere to any of the usual safeguards or protocols of a criminal court case. The jurors aren’t impartial; they’re a group of politicians. But, again, your point is well taken.


5 posted on 02/11/2021 3:16:51 AM PST by Sidebar Moderator
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To: Alberta's Child
Impeachment is whatever the House says it is, but I think that the Articles of Impeachment are the criminal equivalent of "incitement to riot," while these new modified articles would be the equivalent of "conspiracy to commit."

Once a D.A. has filed charges against someone, they can amend those charges as the evidence allows. They don't need to go back to a Grand Jury to get additional indictments.

That is not true of the House Managers. They are there only to prosecute the Articles of Impeachment passed by the house. They can't willy-nilly add additional scope to the chagres on their own volition.

9 posted on 02/11/2021 3:19:10 AM PST by Yo-Yo (is the /sarc tag really necessary?)
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