Posted on 11/19/2014 3:14:13 AM PST by afraidfortherepublic
Would somebody please explain to me why all these "important" votes in the Senate now need 60 votes to pass? I know that it is some kind of "rule" that Harry Reid instituted, but when does it kick in, and what is the reasoning behind it?
So, the recent vote on Keystone XL was not a vote on the Bill, itself, but a vote on cloture? IOW, the Bill is still “live” and could be voted on if they find one more vote?
Actually it take two thirds of both houses to override, that's 67 in the Senate.
I am not a rules hawk, but i believe so. Cloture having failed, the bill is still technically open for debate. Any Senator could again ask unanimous consent to proceed to a vote and, if there is objection, move for cloture.
Absolutely correct.
Cloture occurs (or doesn’t) entirely within the senate and is related to ending filibusters and forcing bills to the senate floor to be heard and voted upon. The number of votes required for cloture is covered under the ever-changing rules of the senate.
The requirements for over-riding a presidential veto are specifically outlined in the Constitution and are based on simple mathematics. A 2/3 majority vote of both houses of congress is required to over-ride the president’s veto of a bill. In the 100 member senate that means 67 votes. In the 435 member house of reprehensibles it means 290 votes.
The requirements to over-ride a veto cannot be changed except by constitutional amendment, not even by Harry Reid, and not even by using “common core” math.
can someone explain why there are votes in the senate which require 60 to pass.
It takes 60 to invoke “cloture” and stop the debate so it can go to a simple majority vote (51).
This is a scam both parties use to say they were “for something” before “they voted against it”.
I did not hear that it was a cloture vote. Thank you Kozak.
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