IMO, because one owes back taxes and any interest/fines/penalties AND THEY GET PAID ON SALE of the property, what is the reason why government gets to keep the entire proceeds? It is legalized (or not) theft of personal property.
I’ve seen the foreclosure process up close in commercial real estate on behalf of a client. The entity that forecloses on the property — whether it be a bank or municipal government — isn’t just entitled to the amount they’re owed by the property owner. It’s also entitled to collect legal fees, administrative costs related to the foreclosure, and any carrying costs for the property while they held it before it was sold.
Processing and attorneys fees? They have many boxes they can check