Posted on 10/12/2021 2:23:38 PM PDT by SunkenCiv
(Somehow we are related by blood.)
I think I’ve seen an old marriage notice for the Chugabrew-Dorneman wedding...
The nice thing about regular jobs is, steady income and (often) pretty reliable employment.
If I’d gone into an academic field, I’d probably have had my pants bored off by now teaching after having built up more ed loan debt than I could pay off without taking the teaching job.
For original research, a scramble for somewhat paltry grants could be necessary. In the right field (art history for example) there’s side work in editing coffee table books. Those are not typically great sellers.
Thanks!
Didn’t much care for the lemonade there. Too much ice.
The “prehistory” discussion is cracking me up. First of all “3000 years ago” is only 1000 BC. Of course they had writing and recorded history... And before that oral back to the stone age. (which is now being discovered to be quite accurate metaphorically).
I thought it was a game stadium.
Whether a culture is prehistoric has to do with whether they had writing or not. Thus, most of PreColumbian America was prehistoric, while small parts were intermittently literate, even though a good bit of the rest of the Earth had writing. Literacy is diagnostic of whether a culture is prehistoric.
They didn’t have writing in the new world before old world language came? Or just didn’t have Greek or Latin? Symbolism and Hieroglyphs do not count?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mesoamerican_writing_systems
Thus, most of PreColumbian America was prehistoric, while small parts were intermittently literate...
But thanks for misrepresenting what I said.
It was not my intent to misrepresent what you said. I am asking a legitimate question so that I know. Oral history and Symbolism was all over the Americas before Columbus. To them there was indeed history even if it was not formally written down and not prehistoric to them at all.
Is this then being judged and compared to old world standards? Because we considered them as completely ignorant until we discovered and gave them and introduced them to history by our own standards and definition? Even though they all did indeed pass down history?
That cultures had no history before it was formally written in an approved and accepted form similar to the old world scripts? Of course they had History... The term Prehistory = formal written language by old world standards could be a misnomer and I think more accurately defined as “pre-civilization” cultures as being “Prehistoric”?
I am just trying to make sense of ideology that is not logical.
A true wonder. Is this perhaps similar to Urnfield culture “gold-hats”?
more like late bronze age
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