Thus, most of PreColumbian America was prehistoric, while small parts were intermittently literate...
But thanks for misrepresenting what I said.
It was not my intent to misrepresent what you said. I am asking a legitimate question so that I know. Oral history and Symbolism was all over the Americas before Columbus. To them there was indeed history even if it was not formally written down and not prehistoric to them at all.
Is this then being judged and compared to old world standards? Because we considered them as completely ignorant until we discovered and gave them and introduced them to history by our own standards and definition? Even though they all did indeed pass down history?
That cultures had no history before it was formally written in an approved and accepted form similar to the old world scripts? Of course they had History... The term Prehistory = formal written language by old world standards could be a misnomer and I think more accurately defined as “pre-civilization” cultures as being “Prehistoric”?
I am just trying to make sense of ideology that is not logical.