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Shouldn't conservatives stop ignoring The British Empire's role in slavery?
PGA Weblog ^

Posted on 02/19/2021 7:49:50 AM PST by ProgressingAmerica

So now they're going to conduct a reparations commission in congress. Where is everybody pointing out that Britain's Empire was the one who brought the slaves here?

The Founders didn't ignore their role across the ocean. Why do we? Shouldn't we do what our Founders did? That's all.


TOPICS: History; Reference; Society
KEYWORDS: ibtz; kinggeorgeiii; reparations; slavery; vanity; worstopusever; zot
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To: SSS Two

The law originated in 1765, and took some time to be acted on.

By that time, yes, Hutchinson was indeed governor. I forgot to mention one piece.

https://www.google.com/books/edition/The_Unknown_American_Revolution/j-ofqWZ-b1cC?hl=en&gbpv=1&pg=PT86

“England ended the institution of slavery in 1772.”

Not true. England England ended the institution of slavery in England in 1772. And Benjamin Franklin was pissing mad because of it.

https://founders.archives.gov/documents/Franklin/01-19-02-0128

“Can sweetening our tea, &c. with sugar, be a circumstance of such absolute necessity? Can the petty pleasure thence arising to the taste, compensate for so much misery produced among our fellow creatures, and such a constant butchery of the human species by this pestilential detestable traffic in the bodies and souls of men? Pharisaical Britain! to pride thyself in setting free a single Slave that happens to land on thy coasts, while thy Merchants in all thy ports are encouraged by thy laws to continue a commerce whereby so many hundreds of thousands are dragged into a slavery that can scarce be said to end with their lives, since it is entailed on their posterity!”

Benjamin Franklin was correct. That’s the point I was making and will continue to make.


101 posted on 02/19/2021 9:57:59 AM PST by ProgressingAmerica (Public meetings are superior to newspapers)
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To: SSS Two

England did not abolish slavery in 1772, they didn’t even complete the job in 1833 either. They later had to come up with yet another bill to address slavery in (India I think it was).

Yes. 1843. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_Slavery_Act,_1843


102 posted on 02/19/2021 10:01:29 AM PST by ProgressingAmerica (Public meetings are superior to newspapers)
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To: rktman
Odd how that map conveniently leaves off the history of Rhode Island, a Union state.

"Within 30 years the colony of Rhode Island, and in particular Newport, came to dominate the North American slave trade. Even though it was the smallest of the colonies, the great majority of slave ships leaving British North America came from Rhode Island ports. Historian Christy Clark-Pujara, in her book Dark Work, The Business of Slavery in Rhode Island, indicates that during “the colonial period in total, Rhode Island sent 514 slave ships to the coast of West Africa, while the rest of the colonists sent just 189.”

http://smallstatebighistory.com/rhode-island-dominates-north-american-slave-trade-in-18th-century/

103 posted on 02/19/2021 10:07:02 AM PST by bgill
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To: Brass Lamp

I think we can all agree that Whitefield got that one wrong. A generation later though, several colonial legislatures were working to try to pass abolitionist laws and parliament/the king/colonial governors loyal to overseas were vetoing them.

And that’s the problem. Another user here floated the idea that Britain ought to be the one to pay reparations to African Americans, and there is some merit to that notion.

It’s specifically because of these motions. Had Britain not interfered, America would’ve started abolishing slavery PRIOR to Independence.

That’s a fact.


104 posted on 02/19/2021 10:08:12 AM PST by ProgressingAmerica (Public meetings are superior to newspapers)
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To: hanamizu

Agreed. I just made the point to another user that had Britain allowed the colonies to do their abolitionist laws instead of vetoing these laws, we might not be in this mess that we are in today. Americans would have begun abolishing slavery prior to Independence.


105 posted on 02/19/2021 10:11:21 AM PST by ProgressingAmerica (Public meetings are superior to newspapers)
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To: Olog-hai

Agreed.

That’s why I record audiobooks and give them away for free as open source.

I know how smart you and others are. I just need to get the information out faster so we can push back against these falsehoods.


106 posted on 02/19/2021 10:14:48 AM PST by ProgressingAmerica (Public meetings are superior to newspapers)
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To: bgill

Africa certainly has its culpability. But Africans didn’t veto pre-Independence abolitionist laws in the 13 colonies and certainly would’ve been happy had those laws come to full fruition.


107 posted on 02/19/2021 10:16:07 AM PST by ProgressingAmerica (Public meetings are superior to newspapers)
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To: bgill

My first ship left Newport. 1/2/1968. Different task though. 🚢😄


108 posted on 02/19/2021 10:23:13 AM PST by rktman (Destroy America from within? Check! WTH? Enlisted USN 1967 to end up with this?)
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To: bgill

Independence(The war, specifically) destroyed slave trading in British Rhode Island, Newport.

The timeline is everything.

https://www.google.com/books/edition/The_Encyclop%C3%A6dia_Britannica/uEkEAAAAYAAJ?hl=en&pg=PA535

Left column, just a little below middle of the page.


109 posted on 02/19/2021 10:23:28 AM PST by ProgressingAmerica (Public meetings are superior to newspapers)
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To: bgill

I do notice that over a million went to Jamaica. Anyone willing to call out commie-la and her ancestors on that? Guess that’d be racis’ and stuff.


110 posted on 02/19/2021 10:45:59 AM PST by rktman (Destroy America from within? Check! WTH? Enlisted USN 1967 to end up with this?)
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To: ProgressingAmerica

How about acknowledging the Muslim’s part in capturing the slaves to sell to the slave traders? And how about acknowledging that practically EVERY civilization in history has owned slaves?


111 posted on 02/19/2021 11:09:16 AM PST by Blood of Tyrants (DemocRats would burn the country to the ground to be absolute rulers over the ashes.)
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To: ProgressingAmerica

sic*(”whose”)


112 posted on 02/19/2021 11:12:53 AM PST by the OlLine Rebel (Common sense is an uncommon virtue./Federal-run medical care is as good as state-run DMVs. I )
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To: ProgressingAmerica

I’m aware MASSACHUSETTS ended slavery ITSELF by the time of the Constitution, but not all of New England.


113 posted on 02/19/2021 11:14:32 AM PST by the OlLine Rebel (Common sense is an uncommon virtue./Federal-run medical care is as good as state-run DMVs. I )
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To: ProgressingAmerica
You make absolutely no sense.

England ended the institution of slavery in 1772. Massachusetts chose to keep slavery legal until court cases in 1781. Slavery was not completely abolished in the United States until 1865. And somehow England is to blame for decisions made over here?

114 posted on 02/19/2021 11:27:04 AM PST by SSS Two
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To: ProgressingAmerica

Slavery existed in Africa for over 900 years before the first European set foot there. They did not hunt them, other tribes brought them in and got paid for it as well as the land the tribes got when the other one was sold into slavery.


115 posted on 02/19/2021 11:36:02 AM PST by 100American (Knowledge is knowing how, Wisdom is knowing when)
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To: ProgressingAmerica
Pennsylvania began phasing out slavery in 1780 with an abolition act. Notice "phasing out". Pennsylvania still had legal slaves in 1840. Benjamin Franklin served as President of Pennsylvania from 1785-1788. Slavery existed at the beginning of Franklin's term. Slavery existed at the end of Franklin's term. Slavery existed in Pennsylvania for another 50+ years.

Look, Franklin was an instrumental Founding Father, there is no denying that. And Franklin was a staunch abolitionist. Regardless of what Franklin thought of slavery, he was sadly unable to end it.

116 posted on 02/19/2021 11:38:35 AM PST by SSS Two
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To: ProgressingAmerica

Because it doesn’t matter. We rebelled from the British but decided to keep slavery. Everything after the Revolution is on us.


117 posted on 02/19/2021 11:40:53 AM PST by discostu (Like a dog being shown a card trick )
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To: BuffaloJack
The British gave reparations to the slave owners. The slave owners in the US were paid nothing--the 14th amendment specifically forbade any payment to anyone for the loss of a slave.

It was easier for the British since the slaves weren't in England but in remote colonies.

118 posted on 02/19/2021 11:58:34 AM PST by Verginius Rufus
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To: ProgressingAmerica
In the case of Virginia, they tried to stop the importation of slaves but there was no effort in the colonial era to abolish slavery. There was talk of doing so (gradual emancipation) after the Nat Turner uprising but it fell short of the necessary votes. The only progress in Virginia in the Revolutionary era was making it possible to emancipate a slave legally--before that it had not been possible.

It's easy to condemn slaveowners from a distance, but how can any of us know what we would have done if born into a slaveholding family? Would we have impoverished ourselves by freeing our slaves or would we have salved our consciences by telling ourselves that we were treating our slaves kindly, and we wished that the institution would be ended somehow before long?

119 posted on 02/19/2021 12:03:31 PM PST by Verginius Rufus
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To: SJackson
I suppose 1781 or 1783 could be used. Because imo, attributing slavery in the colonies pre 1776 to what has become the US is inaccurate, the colonies only “control” was whether an individual purchased a slave or not. As another poster noted a couple states attempted to abandon slavery earlier, but were overridden by England.

I agree that the States are not responsible for what was imposed upon the colonies. The north did not exactly free those who were slaves. Largely, they sold them south. The 1860 census showed more free blacks in the slave states than in the free states. What to do with the slaves, if freed, was another problem.

120 posted on 02/19/2021 12:05:24 PM PST by woodpusher
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