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150 years on, Sherman's March to Sea still vivid
Pioneer Press ^ | 11-15-14 | Christopher Sullivan

Posted on 12/05/2014 5:44:32 AM PST by TurboZamboni

MILLEDGEVILLE, Ga. (AP) — At the heart of this well-preserved antebellum city, sunbeams stream through the arched windows of a grand public meeting room that mirrors the whole Civil War — including its death throes, unfolding 150 years ago this week when Union Gen. William Tecumseh Sherman launched his scorching March to the Sea.

The first major objective along Sherman's route, Milledgeville was Georgia's capital at the time, and this room was the legislative chamber. Crossing its gleaming floor, Amy Wright couldn't help recalling family stories of the hated "foragers" who swept through then. "They were just called 'Sherman's men,'" she said in a hushed voice.

(Excerpt) Read more at twincities.com ...


TOPICS: History
KEYWORDS: 150; americanhistory; civilwar; civilware; dixie; militaryhistory; sherman
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To: DiogenesLamp
You are advocating a position of forcing people to do what the government says... for their own good. I believe the common term used nowadays is "nanny state."

No I am not. I am advocating a position where people follow the law, honor their commitments, and stay true to their word. Your false analogy of the husband and wife is the epitome of inaptness.

321 posted on 12/11/2014 9:42:54 AM PST by rockrr (Everything is different now...)
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To: rockrr
rockrr to DiogenesLamp: "Your false analogy of the husband and wife is the epitome of inaptness."

If you will permit me, I'll suggest that our FRiend's analogy of husband and wife is entirely appropriate, providing we understand that Fire Eating secessionists are the "husband" and our poor troops in Fort Sumter the "wife".
Now, doesn't it all make sense?

322 posted on 12/11/2014 11:33:10 AM PST by BroJoeK (a little historical perspective..)
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To: central_va
The legislatures of the seceding states drafted articles of secession which were ratified and signed by the Governors of each of those states. Then the secession went out for referendum to be decided by the citizens.

Actually, only a few states took actual secession articles to the voters. In most, the legislatures called for the election of delegates to a convention, and those delegates voted secession up or down. In the case of Louisiana, for example, the convention held a specific vote on submitting actual secession to the people, as required by the state constitution, and rejected the idea 84-45.

323 posted on 12/11/2014 12:00:39 PM PST by Bubba Ho-Tep ("The rat always knows when he's in with weasels"-- Tom Waits)
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To: Bubba Ho-Tep

Either way it was not “chaotic”. The war was chaotic, the secession was not.


324 posted on 12/11/2014 2:13:34 PM PST by central_va (I won't be reconstructed and I do not give a damn.)
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To: BroJoeK

Your explanations are unpersuasive. I saw them as a series of non sequiturs. They were simply not sufficient to prove your premise, or even support it very much.


325 posted on 12/11/2014 2:26:37 PM PST by DiogenesLamp (Partus Sequitur Patrem)
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To: BroJoeK
Indeed, that was precisely the sin committed by Brits on May 24, 1774, when they unilaterally and at pleasure abrogated their 83 year-old compact, the Massachusetts Charter of 1691. Their act of unilateral abrogation is what made British rule over Massachusetts invalid, and justified all American actions leading up to Revolutionary War.

Yeah, they did have the right to abrogate that charter. According to their form of government, that was perfectly legal.

It is starting to get funny reading your arguments while noting your seemingly complete inability to see the parallels with the Confederates in the civil war or how the two events were alike. On the one hand, you simply want the Confederates to be the bad guys, and on the other you want the Crown to be the bad guys, and you are perfectly willing to do logical backflips to marry those two ideas together.

The fact that the Crown far better represents the actions of the Union, and that the Confederates far better represent the actions of the Colonists, is simply something you cannot accept, and so here you are constantly splitting hairs and drawing distinctions without a difference in an effort to rationalize your logical conundrum.

Like I said, it's getting pretty funny. :)

326 posted on 12/11/2014 2:46:30 PM PST by DiogenesLamp (Partus Sequitur Patrem)
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To: BroJoeK
Perusing the rest of your messages on this topic is starting to put me into an ennui coma, so I think I will go find something else to do for awhile.

I don't feel like you are taking the discussion seriously, so i'm getting less inclined to do so as well.

Later folks.

327 posted on 12/11/2014 2:57:20 PM PST by DiogenesLamp (Partus Sequitur Patrem)
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To: DiogenesLamp
DiogenesLamp: "Your explanations are unpersuasive.
I saw them as a series of non sequiturs.
They were simply not sufficient to prove your premise, or even support it very much"

No "premise" there, just the facts, sir.
Sure, facts you don't like, and refuse to acknowledge, but facts nonetheless.

328 posted on 12/11/2014 3:12:30 PM PST by BroJoeK (a little historical perspective.)
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To: DiogenesLamp; rockrr; Sherman Logan
DiogenesLamp: "The fact that the Crown far better represents the actions of the Union, and that the Confederates far better represent the actions of the Colonists, is simply something you cannot accept..."

For the simple & obvious reason it's not true.
The apt comparison is of Brits to Confederates because both abrogated their previous "compact" unilaterally, "at pleasure", and both started war against Americans.

Of course you don't like those facts, but they remain facts nonetheless, sir.

329 posted on 12/11/2014 3:26:25 PM PST by BroJoeK (a little historical perspective.)
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To: BroJoeK
I disagree with this interpretation. The American colonists rebelled, pure and simple. There was no pretense that it was somehow permitted to do so under the existing law. A rebellion can be perceived as morally just or unjust, and a great deal depends on which side of it you find yourself, but the rebellion itself is by its nature, supra-legal. It is, by definition, a rejection of the law, or at least aspects of it.

As has been said on these threads many times, the Founding Fathers were under no illusion that their actions were legal, and they didn't whine that the British had no legal right to oppose them.

330 posted on 12/11/2014 4:01:06 PM PST by Bubba Ho-Tep ("The rat always knows when he's in with weasels"-- Tom Waits)
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To: DiogenesLamp

That ennui is what occurs when you can’t reconcile your views with reality. ;’)


331 posted on 12/11/2014 4:41:06 PM PST by rockrr (Everything is different now...)
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To: Bubba Ho-Tep; DiogenesLamp; rockrr; Sherman Logan
Bubba Ho_Tep: "I disagree with this interpretation.
The American colonists rebelled, pure and simple.
There was no pretense that it was somehow permitted to do so under the existing law."

First, remember, we're talking about Massachusetts in April 1774, a time when no serious rebellion had happened amongst the colony's 300,000+ citizens, only some protests by a hundred activists, the Boston Tea Party.
And yet Parliament used that excuse to revoke the 1691 Charter, punishing all 300,000+ Massachusetts citizens.
So, they felt betrayed and abused by British bad-faith, and essentially refused to recognize Parliament's authority.
Without a working mutual compact acknowledging British legitimacy, Brits must impose it by military force.
Now Rebellion begins in earnest.

Point is, most Massachusetts citizens did not feel they deserved to be mistreated by Britain, and that was root cause of their resistance.

Similarly, in early 1861 declarations of secession by Deep South Fire Eaters came out of the blue for most Americans, who didn't think they deserved to have their country split apart.
When those declarations were followed by seizures and military assault on Federal properties, and threats against Washington DC itself, northerners felt that was too much to accept, and became willing to fight for their Union.

So, at least in my mind, the comparison of 1775 Brits assaulting Lexington & Concord and 1861 Confederates assaulting Fort Sumter seems precise, exact.

Of course, our Lost Causers always jump straight over this part, preferring to focus their attention on, naturally, Uncle Billy Sherman's March to the Sea, just as if that came straight out of the blue, with no previous history to explain it.
In their minds, the Civil War began with Sherman's March, and ended with Pickett's Charge in Gettysburg -- a noble cause, brilliantly fought against overwhelming odds and evil Northern men who were trying to impose Communism on good Southerners only devoted to our Constitution, limited government and private enterprise.

I mean, isn't that a great myth?
You really couldn't beat it, if only even a word of it were true.

Do you disagree?

332 posted on 12/11/2014 7:34:11 PM PST by BroJoeK (a little historical perspective.)
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To: BroJoeK
And yet Parliament used that excuse to revoke the 1691 Charter, punishing all 300,000+ Massachusetts citizens.

The original Tea Partiers were prominent citizens. Everybody knew who they were in MA, and the colony's political and legal systems demonstrated they were utterly unwilling to enforce the law on them.

IOW, the Tea Party was supported by MA's citizenry and political class. So in essence it was a rebellion by the colony or most of it.

One can certainly argue that the rebellion was justified, but not that it was only a demonstration by a hundred private citizens.

333 posted on 12/12/2014 2:51:48 AM PST by Sherman Logan
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To: Sherman Logan
Sherman Logan: "The original Tea Partiers were prominent citizens.
Everybody knew who they were in MA, and the colony's political and legal systems demonstrated they were utterly unwilling to enforce the law on them."

Well, there was a meeting on December 16, 1774, (note the 240 anniversary coming up!) presided over by Samuel Adams...

A few hundred, at most, out of 300,000+ Massachusetts citizens...
Now, that's the way I learned it as a boy -- rightly or wrongly, Tea Party leaders objected to "taxation without representation", and took action to defend their "constitutional rights" as Englishmen.

Of course, you may well argue, and Brits certainly did, that "as colonists, they had no such rights", but from Massachusetts colonists' perspectives, it was Brits who were trying to take their rights away, not Americans wanting to assert some unheard-of privileges.
Indeed, the unusual aggressiveness of the Brit-appointed Massachusetts governor, in enforcing a law which was ignored in other colonies, and British refusal to seek peaceful resolution strongly suggest to me that it was the Brits, not colonists who were "cruisin' for a bruisin'".

Likewise, in early 1861 it was Confederates trying to revoke their 84 year-old compact, and using military force instead of lawful procedures to impose their will on, in one case, Union troops in Fort Sumter.

Do you disagree?

334 posted on 12/12/2014 6:02:14 AM PST by BroJoeK (a little historical perspective.)
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To: BroJoeK

I don’t disagree that Massachusetts colonists believed they were defending their rights, just as English rebels in 1642 and Confederates in 1861 did.

The problem is that defending their rights required, or they believed it did, stepping beyond the established legal and constitutional procedures.

They all believed, and arguably they were correct to do so, that they had no choice, that the existing legal and constitutional procedures no longer protected their rights.

But the minute they went beyond those procedures, they became revolutionaries intent on overthrowing the existing order and replacing it with a new and better (or so they believed) one.

You seem to be intent on demonstrating that the men of 1776 acted constitutionally and the men of 1861 did not. I don’t see it. To my mind, they were both revolutionists. Whether they were justified or not in their revolution was dependent not on whether it was constitutional, since a constitutional revolution is a contradiction in terms, but on the goals of that revolution.

The men of 1776 had as their goal increasing liberty, the goal of the men of 1861 was to prevent an extension of human liberty. To my mind, that’s why the American Revolutionaries were justified in their rebellion, and the Confederates were not.


335 posted on 12/12/2014 6:28:23 AM PST by Sherman Logan
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To: central_va
Absolutely zero anarchy.

Anarchy would have to wait until the Confederate Congress was formed and Jefferson Davis appointed president.

336 posted on 12/12/2014 7:11:37 AM PST by DoodleDawg
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To: Sherman Logan
Sherman Logan: "You seem to be intent on demonstrating that the men of 1776 acted constitutionally and the men of 1861 did not."

No, hardly, only trying to put the right actors in their proper roles, and show the moral equivalency between 1775 British troops marching on Lexington and 1861 Confederate troops firing on Fort Sumter:

  1. Both Brits and Confeds had just revoked their 84 year-old compacts with Americans -- unilaterally and "at pleasure".

  2. Both demanded surrender of American militia/military force.

  3. Both used their own military forces as substitutes for peaceful, good-faith negotiations.

  4. Both inspired fierce resistance from Americans who did not want to see the old order changed by brutal military assault.

So why is all this even important?
Because, as you well know, our Lost Cause propagandists have concocted an entirely different narrative, where somehow they were the victims, they were "oppressed", and they were set-upon by brutal military forces, etc., etc.
Our Lost Causers tell us that they were the 1861 Massachusetts colonists, facing down the might of Yankee/British forces marching on their Lexington & Concord.

So I'm merely here to establish, beyond all reasonable doubt, that Confederates at Fort Sumter played the roles of, not Massachusetts colonists, but rather the British Army marching to establish a new order where they could dictate terms, regardless of old compacts.

So what, exactly, don't you "get" about that?

337 posted on 12/12/2014 8:17:57 AM PST by BroJoeK (a little historical perspective.)
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To: BroJoeK

Sorry, getting tired of the discussion.

I respect your POV, which is at least a new take, but disagree.


338 posted on 12/12/2014 8:22:11 AM PST by Sherman Logan
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To: BroJoeK
So, at least in my mind, the comparison of 1775 Brits assaulting Lexington & Concord and 1861 Confederates assaulting Fort Sumter seems precise, exact.

Unreal. Really just unreal.

The cognitive dissonance is strong in this one...

339 posted on 12/12/2014 11:23:31 AM PST by DiogenesLamp (Partus Sequitur Patrem)
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To: Sherman Logan
You seem to be intent on demonstrating that the men of 1776 acted constitutionally and the men of 1861 did not. I don’t see it. To my mind, they were both revolutionists. Whether they were justified or not in their revolution was dependent not on whether it was constitutional, since a constitutional revolution is a contradiction in terms, but on the goals of that revolution.

Exactly.

340 posted on 12/12/2014 2:05:15 PM PST by Bubba Ho-Tep ("The rat always knows when he's in with weasels"-- Tom Waits)
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