Posted on 08/24/2012 8:04:40 AM PDT by Renfield
Languages as diverse as English, Russian and Hindi can trace their roots back more than 8,000 years to Anatolia now in modern-day Turkey. That's the conclusion of a study1 that assessed 103 ancient and contemporary languages using a technique normally used to study the evolution and spread of disease. The researchers hope that their findings can settle a long-running debate about the origins of the Indo-European language group...
(Excerpt) Read more at nature.com ...
Ping.
Proposed spread of language, animated:
http://www.youtube.com/watch?feature=player_embedded&v=0pa7SPns8fQ
The title is absurd: Turkish is an Altaic language.
Why folks outside the Turkish Republic accept the conceit of Ataturk and his political heirs that everything inside the bounds of the modern Republic of Turkey is “Turkish”, when most of the history and much of the culture even after the region was overrun by the Turks was Greek, Armenian, Kurdish, Roman, Persian,. . . always mystifies me. The sort of willful historical ignorance, endemic among Americans, that can’t see further into the past than WW II, I suppose.
The ancient Anatolian branch of Indo-European, including Hittite, Luwian, and Palaic in the second millennium B.C., and some later languages such as Lydian, are rather different from the other languages and that branch seems to have diverged from the rest a little earlier. That does not seem to fit in with Anatolia being the original center from which all the later languages spread out.
Pachalafaka sounds so romantic in Turkey.
While I don’t want to sound too literal, headline writers can be so ignorant.
“Turkish” refers to a country, a language group and a wide-spread ethnic group. All three have Indo-European roots, but the Article refers to Anatolia, not Turkey.
The title of the article is misleading. A “Turkish origin” doesn’t imply geographical Anatolia but rather an origin among ethno-cultural Turkish groups from central Asia who eventually migrated to Anatolia, which then became “Turkey” (after themselves).
True, Turkish ia an Altaic language but it spread into modern day Turkey from Asia. The languages spoken prior to that were not Altaic. The Turkish language has nothing to do with this article.
Didn’t Noah’s boat land in Turkey after the Flood?
Did you read the second paragraph of my post?
Ataturks objective, and that of his nationalist predecessors, was to cleanse Turkey of all alternative cultures and create a homogenous, unified Turkish nation-state.
And oh and by the way, These modern day "Turks" are really just badly baptized Greeks anyhow. ...to paraphrase Doroshevich
See Genesis 10
No it landed on the Mountains of Ararat. It could be in Turkey, Iraq or Iran(Persia).
So now in addition to Astronomy, Mathematics, the Space Program, Brain Surgery, Nanotechnology and Spicy Take-Out Chicken, Muslims are getting credit for inventing the English Language too?
Yes, yes, I know that. But how is that relevant to the acceptance of his conceit that, for instance, the Ecumenical Patriarchate or some Persian ruins in far eastern Anatolia or the Greek, Armenian, or Kurdish citizens of the Republic of Turkey are “Turkish” by the rest of the world?
But apart from Astronomy, Mathematics, the Space Program, Brain Surgery, Nanotechnology and Spicy Take-Out Chicken...what have the Muslims ever done for us?
Then why are they looking at the Anatolian origins of the Indo-Europeon language instead of around the area or Iraq and Iran?
BTW, how many Ararats are there in the world?
How is this possible when aryans/indo-iranians/indo-aryans and sanskrit came from india?
Genesis 8:4
King James Version (KJV)
4 And the ark rested in the seventh month, on the seventeenth day of the month, upon the mountains of Ararat.
It says the “mountains of Ararat” NOT nessarily on THE Mt Ararat.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mountains_of_Ararat
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