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SCOTUS and Janus: the end of stare decisis? (preserving bad precedent as valid law)
self | 6/28/18 | NewJerseyJoe

Posted on 06/28/2018 9:14:33 AM PDT by NewJerseyJoe

The Janus ruling was earth-shaking (in a hugely positive way). Way past time for out-of-control government unions (aka Democrat money-laundering machines) to be taken down at least one peg. But I thought the more important takeaway was SCOTUS putting in writing the idea that precedent is insufficient grounds for preserving bad law that conflicts with fundamental constitutional tenets.

"Fundamental free speech rights are at stake...and [prior precedent] Abood [v. Detroit Bd of Ed.] was poorly reasoned." - Justice Alito

It's really bad news for the lefties, who always scream about "settled law" and stare decisis. This ruling has huge implications for the future.


TOPICS: Government; Politics; Society
KEYWORDS: alito; janus; precedent; scotus; staredecisis
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To: Architect of Avalon

Uh, actually I am talking actual practice, as in the actual practice of law.


21 posted on 06/28/2018 11:10:59 AM PDT by Okeydoker
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To: NewJerseyJoe

No more umbras and penumbras either !


22 posted on 06/28/2018 11:21:33 AM PDT by WildHighlander57 ((WildHighlander57, returning after lurking since 2000)
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To: Sacajaweau

“Can wicked rulers be allied with You,
those who frame injustice by statute?”
—Psalm 94:20

The demonic con of passing evil laws and calling them “settled” is ancient.


23 posted on 06/28/2018 12:34:47 PM PDT by avenir ("But as for you, teach what accords with sound doctrine."--Paul to Titus)
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To: Okeydoker
While SCOTUS respects precedent, they are not bound by it.

"[W]hen convinced of former error, this Court has never felt constrained to follow precedent. ... this Court throughout its history has freely exercised its power to reexamine the basis of its constitutional decisions." Smith v. Allwright, 321 U.S. 649, 665 (1944).

The Supreme Court can not be bound by precedent since it is the highest court, and therefore ultimately sets precedent.

24 posted on 06/28/2018 3:11:37 PM PDT by captain_dave
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To: captain_dave

Ok, the way it is described is thus: the high court IS bound by precedent, but precedent can be overruled if found to be in error.

It is technically not correct to say the court is not bound by precedent because they themselves say that they are, BUT to the extent that they can change and overrule precedent as a practical matter they are not bound by it. But stability of the law demands that lower courts follow the law as it is stated by the high court. If the court were to say that they dont respect precedent then every lower court would just take whatever action they want claiming that the high court never set a precedent on what action to take.

So, while every court is obligated to follow precedent it obviously can be changed although the courts do so as rarely as,possible as to not disturb
The orderly process of handling cases.


25 posted on 06/28/2018 4:07:00 PM PDT by Okeydoker
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To: IronJack

What about the opinion in which Kennedy provided the crucial vote in Oberfell v. Hodges?


26 posted on 06/28/2018 4:16:03 PM PDT by AmericanVictory (Should we be more like them or they more like we used to be?)
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To: Okeydoker

Roger that


27 posted on 06/28/2018 4:40:39 PM PDT by captain_dave
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To: NewJerseyJoe
Overturn Wickard v. Filburn then watch the sparks fly! Imagine if Congress COULDN’T micromanage the economy!
28 posted on 06/28/2018 5:12:49 PM PDT by DNME (The only solution to a BAD guy with a gun is a GOOD guy with a gun. Period.)
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To: AmericanVictory
I don't think the idea is that we can just discard every decision in which Kennedy had a major influence or cast the deciding vote. The thought is that any decision rendered in recent history that is the result of bad law, improper reading of the Constitution, or clearly partisan without foundation in logic can be overturned, regardless of how "settled" it is.

Roe is built on the fictional "penumbra" of a non-existent "right to privacy." No such thing even exists in the Constitution, so any precedent derived from it has no legal anchor. Brown rests on the nonsensical thesis that "separate is inherently unequal." That is clearly unsupportable by logic, since in every sense of the word, two different things can be equal even though they differ in virtually every aspect.

Obergfell was argued as a Constitutional issue centering around the Equal Protection Clause and the Due Process Clause of the 14th Amendment. While it can certainly be argued that "equal protection" of an individual's rights does NOT include the right to marry, at least the root has some claim to Constitutional authority, and can be argued within the bounds of reason. Unlike the other two cases.

It's not that I wouldn't like to see Obergfell overturned; it's just that I don't think this is the lever to do it.

29 posted on 06/28/2018 5:14:14 PM PDT by IronJack (A)
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To: IronJack

Show me where in the extensive proceedings that accompanied the enactment of the 14th Amendment, there is any constitutional “intent” to establish a right of homosexual marriage.


30 posted on 06/28/2018 5:36:33 PM PDT by AmericanVictory (Should we be more like them or they more like we used to be?)
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To: AmericanVictory
The argument was that if two adults have the right to get married, then, under Equal Protection, that means ANY two competent adults. Excluding homos denies them a protection accorded heterosexuals (also known as "normal people") based solely on their sexual orientation.

That's the argument. I don't buy it, but at least it's better than inventing a "penumbra" or stating that 4 + 1 is somehow unequal to 2 + 3.

31 posted on 06/28/2018 6:55:14 PM PDT by IronJack (A)
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To: IronJack

But what if “equal protection” traces back to the 14th Amendment?


32 posted on 06/28/2018 8:27:38 PM PDT by AmericanVictory (Should we be more like them or they more like we used to be?)
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To: AmericanVictory

Then the Court is entitled to refine the scope ofthat term, including broadening it to encompass faux marriage. Which is exactly what the Roberts Court did.

I think the key to destroying Obergfell lies in strengthening the EXPLICIT 1st Amendment “Free Exercise” clause to protect the right of religious people to deny complicity in what their religion considers an abominable, sinful institution. I don’t have to rent to queers. I don’t have to bake their cake, take their pictures, or recognize their phony “marriage.” I can’t be forced to participate in their pathology.


33 posted on 06/29/2018 5:26:33 AM PDT by IronJack (A)
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To: captain_dave
Stare decisis does not apply to the Supreme Court. It can not because it is the highest court. That fact used to be taught in high school American history.

Then, you were misled. Stare decisis is applicable to all court cases, regardless of the court.

Courts attempt to maintain and develop previous standings. If that previous standing was bogus, then it should be ignored and replaced with sounder reasoning.

34 posted on 06/30/2018 7:06:39 AM PDT by nonsporting
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To: IronJack
-- This could go back to Roe ...

Yep. See Scalia's scathing dissent in Planned Parenthood v. Casey, 505 U.S. 833 (1992).

The Court's reliance upon stare decisis can best be described as contrived. It insists upon the necessity of adhering not to all of Roe, but only to what it calls the "central holding." It seems to me that stare decisis ought to be applied even to the doctrine of stare decisis, and I confess never to have heard of this new, keep-what-you-want-and-throw-away-the-rest version. I wonder whether, as applied to Marbury v. Madison, 1 Cranch 137 (1803), for example, the new version of stare decisis would be satisfied if we allowed courts to review the constitutionality of only those statutes that (like the one in Marbury) pertain to the jurisdiction of the courts. ...

The Court's description of the place of Roe in the social history of the United States is unrecognizable. Not only did Roe not, as the Court suggests, resolve the deeply divisive issue of abortion; it did more than anything else to nourish it, by elevating it to the national level, where it is infinitely more difficult to resolve.


35 posted on 06/30/2018 7:14:28 AM PDT by Cboldt
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To: Sacajaweau
-- Gay marriage and abortion as "law" was not precedent but legislating from the bench. --

The way liberals interpret Marbury v. Madison, legislating from the bench is precisely what the courts are supposed to do. "Say what the law is."

36 posted on 06/30/2018 7:16:31 AM PDT by Cboldt
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To: AmericanVictory
Show me where in the extensive proceedings that accompanied the enactment of the 14th Amendment, there is any constitutional “intent” to establish a right of homosexual marriage.

There is none. This is judge-made law. This is tyranny, a usurpation of authority.

That ruling creating sodomite marriage was lawless to the core. Sodomites deserve death, not honor. Marriage was estabished by God for one man and one woman. Jesus reminded the Pharisees in Matthew 19:3-6 what God intended from the beginning. No scripture documents God ever changing this covenant.

The Bible condemns sodomite behavior, never praises it, punishing it with death (Leviticus 20:13). And Romans 1 (and Jude) explains that this behavior is worthy of death, Sodom and Gomorrah being an example for us even today.

37 posted on 06/30/2018 7:31:05 AM PDT by nonsporting
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