The Bible requires such for the voice of the Lord to be heard by man.
REALLY?
Chapter and verse please.
REALLY?
Why don’t I just mention one name of many from Old to New Testament that blow any such question right out of the water.
Moses!
Practically every book in the Old or New Testament.
So now suddenly it’s supposed to be all different? Perhaps that’s one reason we have not yet come to a unity of the faith?