He did not have original sin, as was also the case with Mary. Unfortunately I cannot remember the sequence of events sufficiently to explain it but it was necessary for Mary to also not have original sin, as the woman who carried Christ in her womb.
Interesting, I was taught that Jesus was the perfect sacrifice to atone for Original Sin, that he had Original Sin but when he was crucified and then he was resurrected he was freed of original sin. So he was truly sinless after the resurrection but prior to the resurrection he had Original Sin.
Christ, indeed, was sinless, free from both original and actual (personal) sin. Catholics believe that Mary was also conceived without sin (the Immaculate Conception) but that this was by a special favor from God so it doesn't in any way make her equal to God or a "goddess". However, the Church does not teach that it was necessary for her to be conceived without sin, but only that it was fitting in keeping with the privilege granted her by God (through no merit or power of her own) to be the one that would conceive in her womb and carry the Second Person of the Holy Trinity.
Conjecture - taught by the Roman Catholic Church